Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 48
Questions 1. A male client has asthma and his physician has prescribed beclomethasone (Vanceril) 3 puffs tid in addition to his other medications. After taking his beclomethasone, the client should be instructed to:A) Clean his inhaler with warm water and soak it in a10% bleach solutionB) Drink a glass of waterC) Sit and restD) Use his bronchodilator inhaler2. A 70-year-old client has pneumonia and has just had a respiratory arrest. He has just been intubated with an 8- mm endotracheal tube. During auscultation of his chest, breath sounds were found to be absent on the left side. The nurse identifies the most likely cause of this as:A) Inappropriate endotracheal tube sizeB) Left-sided pneumothoraxC) Right mainstem bronchus intubationD) Pneumonia3. A 55-year-old client is unconscious, and his physician has decided to begin tube feeding him using a smallbore silicone feeding tube (Keofeed, Duo-Tube). After the tube is inserted, the nurse identifies the most reliable way to confirm appropriate placement is to:A) Aspirate gastric contentsB) Auscultate air insufflated through the tubeC) Obtain a chest x-rayD) Place the tip of the tube under water and observe for air bubbles4. A 70-year-old client is almost finished receiving her second unit of packed red blood cells. The client, who weighs 80 lb, has started complaining of being short of breath and now has crackles in the bases of her lungs. After slowing or stopping the transfusion, the most appropriate initial nursing action would be to:A) Raise the client - s head and place her feet in a dependent positionB) Notify the physicianC) Place the client on 2 liters of O2 via nasal cannulaD) Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg IV push5. A 52-year-old clients abdominal aortic aneurysm ruptured. She received rapid massive blood transfusions for bleeding. One potential complication of blood administration for which she is especially at risk is:A) Air embolusB) Circulatory overloadC) HypocalcemiaD) Hypokalemia Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Inhalers should be cleaned once a day. They should be taken apart, washed in warm water, and dried according to manufacturers instructions. Soaking in bleach is inappropriate. (B) A common side effect of inhaled steroid preparations is oral candidal infection. This can be prevented by drinking a glass of water or gargling after using a steroid inhaler. (C) There is nothing wrong with sitting and resting after using a steroid inhaler, but it is not necessary. (D) If a person is using a steroid inhaler as well as a bronchodilator inhaler, the bronchodilator shouldalways be used first. The reason for this is that the bronchodilator opens up the persons airways so that when the steroid inhaler is used next, there will be better distribution of medication.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Appropriate endotracheal tube sizes for adults range from 7.08.5 mm. (B) Pneumothorax could be indicated by an absence of breath sounds on the affected side. However, in a recently intubated client, the first priority would be to consider tube malposition. (C) During intubation, the right mainstem bronchus can be inadvertently entered if the endotracheal tube is inserted too far. Left mainstem bronchus intubation almost never occurs because of the angle of the left mainstem bronchus. (D) Breath sounds for someone with pneumonia may be decreased over the areas of consolidation. However, in a recently intubated client, the first priority would be to consider tube malposition.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Aspiration of gastric contents is usually a reliable way to verify tube placement. However, if the client has dark respiratory secretions from bleeding, tube feedings could be mistaken for respiratory secretions; in other words, aspirating an empty stomach is less reliable in this instance. In addition, it is common for small-bore feeding tubes to collapse when suction pressure is applied. (B) Insufflation of air into large-bore nasogastric tubes can usually be clearly heard. In small-bore tubes, it is more difficult to hear air, and it is difficult to distinguish between air in the stomach and air in the esophagus. (C) A chest x-ray is the most reliable means to determine placement of small-bore nasogastric tubes. (D) Observing for air bubbles when the tip is held under water is an unreliable means to determine correct tube placement for all types of nasogastric tubes. Air may come from both the respiratory tract and the stomach, and the client who is breathing shallowly may not force air out of the tube into the water.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Raising the clients head and placing her feet in a dependent position is an independent nursing action that can be taken to decrease venous return and to reduce pulmonary congestion. (B) Notifying the physician is an appropriate action that should be taken after the client is positioned to maximize her respiratory status. (C) Placing the client on O2may be done with a physicians order or according to an institutions standing orders; however, other actions should be taken first. (D) Furosemide 20 mg IV push is an appropriate medication for the client, but it must be ordered by her physician.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Air embolism is a potential complication of blood administration, but it is fairly rare and can be prevented by using good IV technique. (B) Circulatory overload is a potential complication of blood administration, but because this client is actively bleeding, she is not at high risk for overload. (C) Hypocalcemia is a potential complication of blood administration that occurs in situations where massive transfusion has occurred over a short period of time. It occurs because the citrate in stored blood binds with the clients calcium. Another potential complication for which this client is especially at risk is hypothermia, which can be prevented by using a blood warmer to administer the blood. (D) Hypokalemia is not a complication of blood administration. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 142
Questions 1. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?A) Conveying calmness with one on one interactionB) Recognizing and dealing with your own feelings to prevent escalation of thepatient - s anxiety levelC) Encourage client participation in group therapyD) Listen and identify causes of their behavior2. A nurse runs into the significant other of a patient with end stage AIDS crying during her smoke break. Which of the following is most appropriate action for the nurse to take?A) Allow her to grieve by herself.B) Tell her go ahead and cry, after all your husband - s pretty bad off.C) Tell her you realize how upset she is, but you don - t want to talk about it now.D) Approach her, offering tissues and encourage her to verbalize her feelings.3. A patient is scheduled for electro-convulsive therapy treatment scheduled in the morning. What must the evening nurse do to provide the client ECT treatment possible?A) Patient signs an informed consent formB) Patient is given morning medicationsC) Patient gets a good night - s sleepD) Patient has a good breakfast4. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of Haldol 15 mg po hs. For which side effect/s must the client seek medical attention?A) SOB and fatigueB) restlessness and muscle spasmsC) dry mouthD) diarrhea5. A nurse is implementing a community awareness campaign about accidental poisoning. Which of the following should she teach in the class?A) The child should be given milk.B) The child should be given syrup of IpecacC) The poison control center should be contactedD) The child should be taken to the ER Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Acutely psychotic patients will disrupt group activities.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Being left alone during the grief process, isolates individuals. These individuals need an outlet for their feelings and to talk to someone who is empathetic.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: An informed consent is required prior to surgery.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Muscle spasms and restlessness are side effects of Haldol5. Right Answer: CExplanation: The poison control center should be contacted first. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 49
Questions 1. A 67-year-old client will be undergoing a coronary arteriography in the morning. Client teaching about postprocedure nursing care should include that:A) Bed rest with bathroom privileges will be orderedB) He will be kept NPO for 8 - 12 hoursC) Some oozing of blood at the arterial puncture site is normalD) The leg used for arterial puncture should be keptstraight for 8 - 12 hours2. A client had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago. His physician has ordered an echocardiogram to determine how his myocardial infarction has affected his ventricular wall motion. When the client asks if this test is painful, an appropriate response is:A) 'No, but you must be able to ride on a stationary bicycle while the test is being performed.'B) 'No, but you will have to lie still and the gel that is used may be cool.'C) 'Yes, but your physician will be there and will order pain medicine for you.'D) 'Your physician has ordered medicine, which you will be given before you go for the test, which will make you sleepy.'3. A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. His physician orders a low-sodium diet for him. When he asks, 'What does salt have to do with high blood pressure? the nurses initial response would be:A) 'The reason is not known why hypertension is associated with a high-salt diet.'B) 'Large amounts of salt in your diet can cause you to retain fluid, which increases your blood pressure.'C) 'Salt affects your blood vessels and causes your blood pressure to be high.'D) 'Salt is needed to maintain blood pressure, but too much causes hypertension.'4. A client has consented to have a central venous catheter placed. The best position in which to place the client is the Trendelenburg position. The reason is that the Trendelenburg position:A) Allows the physician to visualize the subclavian veinB) Reduces the possibility of air embolismC) Reduces the possibility of hematoma formationD) Makes the procedure more comfortable for the client5. A newborn infant is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following would the nurse recognize as the earliest clinical sign of respiratory distress?A) CyanosisB) Increased respirationsC) Sternal and subcostal retractionsD) Decreased respirations Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Bed rest will be ordered for 812 hours postprocedure. Flexing of the leg at the arterial puncture site will occur if the client gets out of bed, and this is contraindicated after arteriography. (B) The client will be able to eat as soon as he is alert enough to swallow safely and that will depend on what medications areused for sedation during the procedure. (C) Oozing at the arterial puncture site is not normal and should be closely evaluated. (D) The leg where the arterial puncture occurred must be kept straight for 812 hours to minimize the risk of bleeding.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Riding a stationary bicycle or walking on a treadmill is done during a stress test. (B) During an echocardiogram, the client must lie supine while a technician performs the test. To perform the test, the technician uses a conductive gel and a transducer to obtain ultrasound tracings of the heart. (C) A physician need not be present during an echocardiogram, and it is neither invasive nor painful. (D) There is no premedication required for an echocardiogram.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This response is untrue. (B) Decreasing salt intake reduces fluid retention and decreases blood pressure. (C) Salt does not have an effect on the blood vessels themselves, but on fluid retention, which accompanies salt intake. (D) This response is untrue.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The subclavian vein is not visible during central line insertion regardless of the clients position. (B) The Trendelenburg position reduces the possibility of air embolism because it places slight positive pressure on the central veins. It also distends the veins, and distention facilitates insertion. (C) This response is untrue; it has no effect on hematoma formation. (D) This position is not necessarily more comfortable for the client, and many clients, especially those who may be short of breath, may find the position uncomfortable and difficult to maintain.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Cyanosis is a late clinical sign of respiratory distress. (B) Rapid respirations are normal in a newborn. (C) The newborn has to exert an extra effort for ventilation, which is accomplished by using the accessory muscles of ventilation. The diaphragm and abdominal muscles are immature and weak in the newborn.(D) Decreased respirations are a late clinical sign. In the newborn, decreased respirations precede respiratory failure. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 1
Questions 1. During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?A) Constituent ListB) Union prospectus ListC) Excelsior ListD) Candidate List2. There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate within a given environment. Which one of the following isNOT a component of the HR Impact Model?A) ConsultationB) ClientC) CatalystD) Programs and processes3. Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to this, what will this term be known as?A) BumpingB) DisplacementC) ReleasingD) Re-organization4. As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?A) ResolutionB) InterpretationC) DecisionD) Outcome5. As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?A) Washington versus Davis, 1976B) Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971C) McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973D) Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975 Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 50
Questions 1. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client in active labor. An important landmark to assess during labor and delivery are the ischial spines because:A) Ischial spines are the narrowest diameter of the pelvisB) Ischial spines are the widest diameter of the pelvisC) They represent the inlet of birth canalD) They measure pelvic floor2. The nurse instructs a client on the difference between true labor and false labor. The nurse explains, 'In true labor:A) Uterine contractions will weaken with walking.'B) Uterine contractions will strengthen with walking.'C) The cervix does not dilate.'D) The fetus does not descend.'3. A first-trimester primigravida is diagnosed with anemia.The nurse should suspect that this anemia is a result of:A) Mother - s increased blood volumeB) Mother - s decreased blood volumeC) Fetal blood volume increaseD) Increase in iron absorption4. In client teaching, the nurse should emphasize that fetal damage occurs more frequently with ingestion of drugs during:A) First trimesterB) Second trimesterC) Third trimesterD) Every trimester5. A laboring client presents with a prolapsed cord. The nurse should immediately place the client in what position?A) Reverse TrendelenburgB) Fowler - sC) TrendelenburgD) Sims - Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The fetal descent, or station, is determined by the relationship of the presenting part to the spine. (B) Ischial spines are the narrowest measurement. (C) Ischial spines measure the pelvic outlet. (D) Pelvic floor measurement is not related to fetal descent.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Uterine contractions increase with activity. (B) Walking will increase the strength and regularity of uterine contractions in true labor. (C) Uterine contractions that are strong and regular facilitate cervical dilation. (D) Regular, strong uterine contractions, as in true labor, result in fetal descent.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Maternal blood volume increases at the end of the first trimester leading to a dilutional anemia. (B) Maternal blood volume increases. (C) Fetal blood volume is minimal in the first trimester. (D) Increased iron absorption would facilitate the manufacturing of erythrocytes and decrease anemia.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Organogenesis occurs in the first trimester. Fetus is most susceptible to malformation during this period. (B) Organogenesis has occurred by the second trimester. (C) Fetal development is complete by this time. (D) The dangerous period for fetal damage is the first trimester, not the entire pregnancy.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Reverse Trendelenburg position increases pressure on the perineum. This position will not relieve cord pressure. (B) Fowlers position increases perineal pressure. Cord pressure would not be relieved. (C) Trendelenburg position will decrease perineal pressure. Cord compression will be decreased and increase in fetal blood flow occurs. (D) Sims position does not relieve pressure on cord or perineum. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 2
Questions 1. Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?A) Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.B) Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.C) Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 per participant, per month.D) Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.2. Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?A) Disparate treatmentB) Disparate impactC) AccommodationD) Perpetuating past discrimination3. As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?A) Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignmentsB) Esteem from working with other talented peopleC) Cash compensationD) On-site cafeteria4. Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?A) Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are documented.B) Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are weighted on importance to the employee.C) Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are weighted based on importance to the organization.D) Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are documented. The different factors and levels are weighted5. What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly compensated?A) $110,000 or moreB) $150,000 or moreC) $100,000 or moreD) $125,000 or more Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 51
Questions 1. A client suspects that she is pregnant. She reports two missed menstrual periods. The first day of her last menstrual period was August 3. Her estimated date of confinement would be:A) November 7B) November 10C) May 7D) May 102. An elective saline abortion has been performed on a 3- week primigravida. Following the procedure, the nurse should be alert for which early side effect?A) Water satietyB) ThirstC) EdemaD) Diabetes insipidus3. Assessment of a newborn for Apgar scoring includes observation for:A) Pupil responseB) Respiratory rateC) Heart rateD) Babinski - s reflex4. Painless vaginal bleeding in the last trimester may be caused by:A) MenstruationB) Abruptio placentaeC) Placenta previaD) Polyhydramnios5. The nurse should facilitate bonding during the postpartum period. What should the nurse expect to observe in the taking-hold phase?A) Mother is concerned about her recovery.B) Mother calls infant by name.C) Mother lightly touches infant.D) Mother is concerned about her weight gain. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Wrong calculation (B) Wrong calculation (C) Wrong calculation(D) Ngeles rule is: Expected Date of Confinement = LastMenstrual Period - 3 months + 7 days + 1 year2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) If the client is experiencing water satiety, there is no more desire for water. (B) Absorption of saline into circulation rather than into amniotic sac increases serum sodium and desire for water. (C) Edema can be a late side effect caused by water intoxication. (D) Diabetes insipidus occurs as a result of deficient antidiuretic hormone.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Pupil response should be assessed but is not part of Apgar scoring. (B) Respiratory effort is an essential part of Apgar scoring, not respiratory rate. (C) Heart rate is the most critical component of Apgar scoring. (D) Assessment of Babinskis reflex is not a component of Apgar scoring.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Menstruation should not occur during pregnancy. (B) Abruptio placentae is marked by painful vaginal bleeding following a premature placental detachment after 20th week of gestation. (C) A low-lying placenta separates from the uterine wall as the uterus contracts and cervix dilates. This separation causes painless bleeding in the 7th-8th month. (D) Polyhydramnios is excessive amniotic fluid.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase when the mothers needs are more important. (B) This observation can be made during the taking- hold phase when the mother is actively involved with herself and the infant. (C, D) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 3
Questions 1. Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you create and send to the vendors in this instance?A) Request for ProposalB) Request for QuoteC) Invitation for BidD) Request for Information2. Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization. Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII of the Civil RightsAct of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?A) This is an example of an exception by bona fide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964B) This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964C) The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964D) This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company3. You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?A) EEO-4 ReportB) EEO-5 ReportC) EEO-3 ReportD) EEO-1 Report4. The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What danger may theJHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?A) Perpetuating past unintentional practicesB) Perpetuating past discrimination practicesC) Succumbing to an adverse impactD) Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates5. You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of validity?A) Construct-related validityB) Predictive validityC) Criterion-related validityD) Content validity Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 52
Questions 1. The physician is preparing to induce labor on a 40-week multigravida. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)B) ProgesteroneC) Vasopressin (Pitressin)D) Ergonovine maleate2. A primigravida is at term. The nurse can recognize the second stage of labor by the client - s desire to:A) Push during contractionsB) Hyperventilate during contractionsC) Walk between contractionsD) Relax during contractions3. A pregnant client during labor is irritable and feels the urge to vomit. The nurse should recognize this as the:A) Fourth stage of laborB) Third stage of laborC) Transition stage of laborD) Second stage of labor4. A pregnant client experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes. The first nursing action is to:A) Assess the client - s respirationsB) Notify the physicianC) Auscultate fetal heart rateD) Transfer to delivery suite5. A pregnant client experiences a precipitous delivery. The nursing action during a precipitous delivery is to:A) Control the delivery by guiding expulsion of fetusB) Leave the room to call the physicianC) Push against the perineum to stop deliveryD) Cross client - s legs tightly Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Oxytocin is a hormone secreted by the neurohypophysis during suckling and parturition that produces strong uterine contractions. (B) Progesterone has a quiescence effect on the uterus. (C) Vasopressin is an antidiuretic hormone that promotes water reabsorption by the renal tubules. (D) Ergonovine produces dystocia as a result of sustained uterine contractions.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The second stage of labor is characterized by uterine contractions, which cause the client to bear down. (B) Slow, deep, rhythmic breathing facilitates the laboring process. Hyperventilation is abnormal breathing resulting from loss of pain control. (C) The client should remain on bed rest during labor. (D) Contractions result in discomfort.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) The fourth stage begins after expulsion of the placenta. Client symptoms are: fatigue; chills; scant, bloody vaginal discharge; and nausea. (B) The third stage is from birth to expulsion of placenta. Client symptoms are uterine contractions, gush of blood, and perineal pain. (C) The transition stage is characterized by strong uterine contractions and cervical dilation. Clientsymptoms are irritability, restlessness, belching, muscle tremors, nausea, and vomiting. (D) The second stage is characterized by full dilation of cervix. Client symptoms are perineal bulge, pushing with contractions, great irritability, and leg cramps.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Immediately following membrane rupture, the fetus is at risk for complications, not necessarily the mother. (B) The physician is notified after the nurse completes an assessment of the mothers and fetuss conditions. (C) Rupture of membranes facilitates fetal descent. A potential complication is cord prolapse, which is assessed by auscultating fetal heart rate. (D) Rupture of membranes does not necessarily indicate readiness to deliver.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Controlling the rapid delivery will reduce the risk of fetal injury and perineal lacerations. (B) The nurse should always remain with a client experiencing a precipitous delivery. (C) Pushing against the perineum may cause fetal distress. (D) Crossing of legs may cause fetal distress and does not stop the delivery process. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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