Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 75
Questions 1. The nurse teaches a pregnant client that a high-risk symptom occurring at any time during pregnancy that needs to be reported immediately to a healthcare provider is:A) ConstipationB) Urinary frequencyC) Breast tendernessD) Abdominal pain2. At her first prenatal visit, a 21-year-old woman who is gravida 2, para 0, ab 1, is currently at 32 weeks - gestation and has a history of drug abuse, smoking, and occasional ethyl alcohol use. Fetal ultrasound tests indicate poor fetal growth. The most likely reason for the infant - s intrauterine growth retardation is:A) The client - s young ageB) The client - s previous abortionC) The client - s history of drug, ethyl alcohol, and tobacco useD) The client - s late prenatal care3. When teaching a class of nursing students, the nurse asks why the embryonic period (weeks 4 - 8) of pregnancy is so critical.A) Duplication of genetic information takes place.B) Organogenesis occurs.C) Subcutaneous fat builds up steadily.D) Kidneys begin to secrete urine.4. What specific hormone must be present in serum or urine laboratory tests used to diagnose pregnancy?A) Human chorionic gonadotropinB) EstrogenC) α-fetoproteinD) Sphingomyelin5. A nurse is taking a maternal history for a client at her first prenatal visit. Her pregnancy test was positive, she has two living children, she had one spontaneous abortion, and one infant died at the age of 3 months. Which of the following best describes the client at the present?A) Gravida 4, para 2, ab 1B) Gravida 5, para 3, ab 1C) Gravida 5, para 4, ab 0D) Gravida 4, para 3, ab 0 Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Constipation is a result of decreased peristalsis due to smooth muscle relaxation related to changing progesterone levels that occur during pregnancy. (B)Urinary frequency is a common result of the increasing size of the uterus and the resulting pressure it places on the bladder. (C) With the increased vascularity and hypertrophy of the mammary alveoli due to estrogen and progesterone level changes, the breasts will increase in size and may become tender. (D)Abdominal pain may be an indication of early spontaneous abortion, preterm delivery, or a placental abruption.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Although adolescents frequently have a higher incidence of low-birth-weight infants, this client is 21 years old. (B) Uncomplicated induced abortions have not been proved to influence the growth of infants of subsequent pregnancies. (C) Compounds in cigarettes and some illicit drugs cause maternal vasoconstriction and a subsequent reduction in O2 availability for the fetus owing to the resulting reduction in uteroplacental blood flow. As few as one or two drinks of alcohol per day will decrease birth weight. (D) Although early prenatal care has been shown to improve pregnancy outcomes, not seeking care until the second week of gestation does not, in and of itself, cause intrauterine growth retardation.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Duplication of genetic material occurs during the preembryonic period (weeks 13) following conception. The exact duplication of genetic material is essential for cell differentiation, growth, and biological maintenance of the organism. (B) Weeks 48, known as the embryonic period, are the time organogenesis occurs and pose the greatest potential for major congenital malformations. All major internal and external organs and systems are formed. (C) Subcutaneous fat does not develop until the latter weeks of gestation. (D) Kidneys begin to secrete urine during the 13th16th week.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Human chorionic gonadotropin is the biochemical basis for pregnancy tests. It is produced by the placenta to help maintain the corpus luteum. Its levels climb rapidly following conception, peaking at about 8 weeks and then gradually decreasing to low levels after 16 weeks. (B) Estrogen does steadily rise throughout pregnancy, increasing to 30 times that of prepregnancy levels. Although estrogen levels do change during pregnancy, it is not used as the main hormone of evaluation in pregnancy tests. (C) -Fetoprotein is the major protein in the serum of theembryo. It is initially produced by the yolk sac. (D) Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids of which fetal lung surfactant is composed. Levels are evaluated to determine fetal lung maturity.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This individual has been pregnant four times, delivered two children, and had one abortion. (B) Your client has been pregnant five times, delivered three children, and had one abortion. (C) This individual has been pregnant five times, delivered four children, and has not had an abortion. (D) This individual has been pregnant four times, delivered three children, and has not had an abortion. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 27
Questions 1. You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're completing a turnover analysis. You're considering that over the past year your organization has employed 1,238 employees and during that same period your organization has terminated 56 employees. Based on this information what is your organization's turnover for the past year?A) 56B) Significantly lower than averageC) 22D) Moderately low2. You are leading a brief presentation for your company about the ERISA program your company participates in. What is ERISA used for?A) It protects the interests of those who participate in employee benefit plansB) It protects the workers of employee compensation plansC) It protects private organizations that have profit sharing plans for employee compensationD) It allows private organizations to create investments for workers in profit-sharing plans3. Pauline is a HR Professional for her organization and she's meeting with the sales manager Jim. Jim wants to know if Randy, one of his sales people, is considered exempt or not because he's doing outside sales. Pauline tells Jim that there are just two qualifiers for Randy to be considered exempt in his role as an outside salesperson. The first is that Randy's primary duty must be making sales. What is the other consideration?A) Randy must earn all income from commission.B) Randy must not have a contract to complete sales.C) Randy must be customarily engaged away from the employer's place of business.D) Randy must earn more than $48,234 per year.4. The Federal Labor Standards Act is something that all HR Professionals should be familiar with. This act clearly defines four areas that affect all employees.Which one of the following is not one of the four areas of employment covered by this act?A) Commissions, royalties, and tipsB) OvertimeC) Record keepingD) Minimum wage5. A union is performing a jurisdictional strike in front of a construction site. What is a jurisdictional strike?A) It is a strike through which the union seeks to pressurize an employer to assign a particular work to its members; rather than to members of other unions or to the non-union workers.B) It is a strike through which the union seeks to pressurize an employer to agree to the terms ofa new contract although there is already an approved contract in place.C) It is a strike through which the union seeks to pressurize an employer to agree to the terms of a new contract because the current contract between the employer and the union has expired.D) It is a strike through which the union seeks to pressurize an employer to assign all work to its members, rather than to members of non-union workers. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 76
Questions 1. A client is now pregnant for the second time. Her first child weighed 4536 g at delivery. The clients glucose tolerance test shows elevated blood sugar levels.Because she only shows signs of diabetes when she is pregnant, she is classified as having:A) Insulin-dependent diabetesB) Type II diabetes mellitusC) Type I diabetes mellitusD) Gestational diabetes mellitus2. Prior to an amniocentesis, a fetal ultrasound is done in order to:A) Evaluate fetal lung maturityB) Evaluate the amount of amniotic fluidC) Locate the position of the placenta and fetusD) Ensure that the fetus is mature enough to perform the amniocentesis3. A 17-year-old pregnant client who is gravida 1, para 0, is at 36 weeks gestation. Based on the nurses knowledge of the maternal physiological changes in pregnancy, which of these findings would be of concern?A) Complaints of dyspneaB) Edema of face and handsC) Pulse of 65 bpm at 8 weeks, 73 bpm at 36 weeksD) Hematocrit 39%4. Based on your knowledge of genetic inheritance, which of these statements is true for autosomal recessive genetic disorders?A) Heterozygotes are affected.B) The disorder is always carried on the X chromosome.C) Only females are affected.D) Two affected parents always have affected children.5. Chorioamnionitis is a maternal infection that is usually associated with:A) Prolonged rupture of membranesB) Postterm deliveriesC) Maternal pyelonephritisD) Maternal dehydration Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, also known as type I diabetes, usually appears before the age of 30 years with an abrupt onset of symptoms requiring insulin for management. It is not related to onset during pregnancy. (B) Non-insulindependent diabetes (type II diabetes) usually appears in older adults. It has a slow onset and progression of symptoms. (C) This type of diabetes is the same as insulin-dependent diabetes. (D) Gestational diabetes mellitus has its onset of symptoms during pregnancy and usually disappears after delivery. These symptoms are usually mild and not life threatening, although they are associated with increased fetal morbidity and other fetal complications.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Amniocentesis can be performed to assess for lung maturity. Fetal ultrasound can be used for gestational dating, although it does not separately determine lung maturity. (B) Ultrasound can evaluate amniotic fluid volume, which may be used to determine congenital anomalies. (C) Amniocentesis involves removal of amniotic fluid for evaluation. The needle, inserted through the abdomen, is guided by ultrasound to avoid needle injuries, and the test evaluates the position of the placenta and the fetus. (D) Amniocentesis can be performed as early as the 15th17th week of pregnancy.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Dyspnea is a common complaint during the third trimester owing to the increasing size of the uterus and the resulting pressure against the diaphragm. (B)Edema of the face, hands, or pitting edema after 12 hours of bed rest may be indicative of preeclampsia and would be of great concern to the healthcare provider.(C) An increase in heart rate of 1015 bpm is a normal physiological change in pregnancy due to the multiple hemodynamic changes. (D) A hematocrit value of39% is within the normal range. A value
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 28
Questions 1. Virginia is the HR Professional for her organization and she is reviewing the details of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967. She tells John, one of her staff members, that the ADEA prohibits discrimination on the basis of age for employees and job applicants who are above a certain age. What age does the ADEA apply to employees and job applicants?A) 40 and aboveB) 50 and aboveC) 30 and aboveD) All people regardless of their age2. Diane is the HR Professional for her organization and she's examining the ranges for the compensation levels of her company. Which one of the following statements best describes what a range for compensation is?A) A range specifies the lowest/minimum and the highest/maximum compensation rates for which positions with each grade are federally mandated that employees be paid.B) A range specifies the lowest/minimum and the highest/maximum compensation rates for which positions with each grade are generally paid.C) A range specifies the lowest/minimum and the highest/maximum compensation rates for the worth of responsibilities.D) A range specifies the lowest/minimum and the highest/maximum value for which employees are generally paid through incentives.3. Which of the following is a communication that damages an individual's reputation in the community, preventing them from obtaining employment?A) GainsharingB) Constructive dischargeC) Duty of loyaltyD) Defamation4. There are seven stages of internal consulting that a HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Mark is a HR Professional for his organization.He is meeting with Tammy and Tammy's supervisor Eric to learn about a conflict between Tammy and Eric. Mark wants to understand both parties before addressing the scenario. Which of the seven stages is Mark, Tammy, and Eric participating in?A) Developing recommendationsB) ImplementingC) Exploring the situationD) Gaining agreement to the project plan5. There are seven stages of internal consulting that a HR Professional must be familiar with. Which one of the following is not one of the seven stages of internal consulting?A) Exploring the situationB) ImplementingC) Developing recommendationsD) Executing the project plan Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 77
Questions 1. A client has been diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. She asks, 'What is the most likely cause of thrombophlebitis during my pregnancy?' The nurse explains:A) Increased levels of the coagulation factors and a decrease in fibrinolysisB) An inadequate production of plateletsC) An inadequate intake of folic acid during pregnancyD) An increase in fibrinolysis and a decrease in coagulation factors2. Following the delivery of a healthy newborn, a client has developed thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin IV. What are the signs and symptoms of a heparin overdose for which the nurse would need to observe during postpartum care of the client?A) DysuriaB) Epistaxis, hematuria, dysuriaC) Vertigo, hematuria, ecchymosisD) Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis3. A client who is a breast-feeding mother develops mastitis. The clinical signs and symptoms of mastitis include:A) Marked engorgement, elevated temperature, chills, and breast pain with an area that is red and hardenedB) Marked engorgement and breast painC) Elevated temperature and general malaiseD) Cracked nipple with complaints of soreness4. A 34-year-old client who is gravida 1, para 0 has a history of infertility and conceived this pregnancy while taking fertility drugs. She is at 32 weeks gestation and is carrying triplets. She is complaining of low back pain and a feeling of pelvic pressure. Her cervical exam reveals a long, closed cervix. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing mild uterine contractions every 78 minutes after the nurse has placed her on the fetal monitor. Her condition should indicate that:A) Her cervix shows she will likely deliver soonB) The nurse should not be alarmed because mild uterine activity is common at 32 weeks - gestationC) She may be in preterm labor because this is more common with multiple pregnanciesD) She most likely has a urinary tract infection (UTI) because this is common with pregnancy5. The most frequent cause of early postpartum hemorrhage is:A) HematomaB) Coagulation disordersC) Uterine atonyD) Retained placental fragments Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) During pregnancy, the potential for thromboses increases owing to the increased levels of coagulation factors and a decrease in the breakdown of fibrin. (B)An inadequate production of platelets would result in thrombocytopenia with resulting signs and symptoms of bleeding such as petechiae, hematuria, or hematemesis. (C) A deficiency of folic acid during pregnancy produces a megaloblastic anemia. It is usually found in combination with iron deficiency. (D) This combination would result in bleeding disorders because more fibrin would be broken down and fewer clotting factors would be available.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Dysuria is not a common symptom of heparin overdose. (B) Although epistaxis and hematuria are common symptoms of heparin overdose, dysuria is not. (C)Vertigo is not a common symptom of heparin overdose. (D) Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis are the most common signs and symptoms of a heparin overdose. Others are thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and local injection site complications.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Mastitis is a bacterial inflammation of the breast tissue found primarily in breast-feeding mothers. The bacteria usually enter the breast through a cracked nipple, or the infection results from stasis of milk behind a blocked duct. (B) With breast engorgement during breast-feeding, there may be marked breast pain.This is not necessarily a sign of infection. (C) Women may become ill during breast-feeding with other bacterial or viral infections that are not related to mastitis.(D) Improper care of the nipples or improper positioning of the infant during breastfeeding may result in cracked or sore nipples.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Her cervical exam is normal. There are no cervical changes at this time. (B) Braxton Hicks contractions may be common throughout pregnancy, but they are not regular. (C) Rhythmical contractions in conjunction with low back pain and pelvic pressure at 32 weeks in a woman carrying triplets are of great concern. She may be in preterm labor. (D) UTIs are common in pregnancy due to the enlarging uterus compressing the ureters and the stasis of urine. The woman would be more likely to complain of urinary frequency and urgency, fever or chills, and malodorous urine with a UTI.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hematomas, which are the result of damage to a vessel wall without laceration of the tissue, are a cause, though not the most frequent cause. (B) Coagulation disorders are among the causes of postpartal hemorrhage, but they are less common. (C) The most frequent causes of hemorrhage in the postpartal period are related to an interference with involution of the uterus. Uterine atony is the most frequent cause, occurring in the first 24 hours after delivery. (D) Retained placental fragments are also a cause, although these bleeds usually occur 714 days after delivery. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 29
Questions 1. Martha is the HR Professional for her organization and she's working with her team to complete non-quantitative job evaluations. Martha wants to stress the available types of non-quantitative job evaluation techniques that are appropriate for her team to be communicated to managers. Which one of the following is not a non-quantitative job evaluation technique that Martha should share?A) Whole job rankingB) Job slottingC) Factor comparisonD) Job classification2. Deal and Kennedy defined the four dimensions of organizational culture that you should be familiar with, as an HR Professional. What dimension of organizational culture is best defined by the hidden hierarchy of power?A) Culture networkB) JoyC) ValuesD) Heroes3. What of the following statements defines total rewards?A) It is the total amount of pay a person earns per year.B) It is the compensation and the benefits a person earns.C) It is the amount of pay a person earns per hour.D) It is the compensation a person earns for their time.4. An organization is considering services it can successfully provide to its customers. One of the services, however, is deemed to be difficult to offer with a high degree of certainty of success. The organization has decided not to offer the service because of the risk in offering the service, and failing. What risk response is used in this scenario?A) TransferenceB) SharingC) AvoidanceD) Mitigation5. There are four sections of the HR Impact Model. Which component of the model is considered to be the most client-oriented role?A) Programs and ProcessesB) CatalystC) ConsultationD) Policies and Procedures Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 78
Questions 1. A client has just been transferred to the floor from the labor and delivery unit following delivery of a stillborn term infant. She is very despondent. When the nurse attempts to take her vital signs, she responds in anger, stating, 'You leave me alone. You don - t care anything about me. It - s people like you who let my baby die.'The nurses best course of action is to:A) Quietly leave her room, allowing her more private time to deal with her loss.B) Tell her that what happened was for the best and that she is still young and can have other children.C) Tell her how sorry you are, and let her know that her child is now a little angel in heaven.D) Tell her how sorry you are about the loss of her baby, and acknowledge her anger as being a normal stage of grief. Assure her that you are there to help her in any way you can.2. When a client arrives on the labor and delivery unit, she informs the nurse that she has been having contractions for the last 5 hours. Now the pain is constant and not cyclical as it was earlier. The nurse considers the possibility of uterine rupture. Which of the following symptoms would be consistent with a uterine rupture?A) A large gush of clear fluid from the vaginaB) Systolic hypertensionC) Abdominal rigidityD) Increased fetal movements3. A mother called the physicians office to ask if it would help relieve her small daughters abdominal pain if she gave an enema and placed a heating pad on the abdomen. Her daughter has a fever and has vomited twice.The nurses response is based on the knowledge that:A) The symptoms could easily have been caused by constipation, which an enema would relieveB) Heat would help to relax the abdominal muscles and relieve her painC) Both heat and enemas stimulate intestinal motility and could increase the risk of perforationD) Complaints of stomach ache are common in young children and are generally best ignored4. An 8-year-old child is admitted to the hospital for surgery. She has had no previous hospitalizations, and both she and her family appear anxious and fearful. It will be most helpful for the nurse to:A) Take the child to her room and calmly and matter-offactly begin to get her ready to go to the operating roomB) Take time to orient the child and her family to the hospital and the forthcoming eventsC) Explain that as soon as the child goes to the operating room she will have time to answer any questions the family hasD) Tell the child and her family that there is nothing to worry about, that the operation will not take long, and she will soon be as 'good as new'5. Following a bicycle accident, a 12-year-old client sustained a complete fracture of the left femur. He was placed in 90-90 skeletal traction with a pin in the distal end of the femur to achieve realignment and immobilization of the left femur. When providing nursing care, it is important for the nurse to remember that:A) The nurse may lift only the weights that are applying traction in order to reposition him in bedB) The client will need special skin care at the pin site according to hospital policy or the physician - s preferenceC) The traction pull should result in an immediate increase in comfort and reduce the need for pain medicationD) The client should be discouraged from participating in self-care activities to avoid the risk of disrupting the traction Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Parents do need their privacy following a loss, but the nurse still has a responsibility to provide postpartum physical care. (B) This is a negative statement, which is not therapeutic. The client is not concerned about future children but is in the first stages of grief, denial, and anger. (C) This is a negative statement, which is not therapeutic. The client does not want to hear about her baby in heaven. She cannot believe that God could love or want her child more than she could. (D) Acknowledging that anger is normal and beneficial will help the client to understand the normal stages of grief. Expressing sorrow over her loss and assuring her that the support is there to take care of her physical and emotional needs will help to promote a trusting relationship.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This symptom would indicate a rupture of the membranes, which would be expected during labor. There would be no cause for alarm if the fluid were clear. (B)With uterine rupture and the risk of maternal shock secondary to blood loss, the most likely sign would be hypotension indicating hypovolemic shock. (C) In the event of a uterine rupture, an abdominal examination would likely reveal rigidity or tenderness. (D) The most likely finding would be a decrease in fetal movement related to fetal distress due to impaired uteroplacental blood flow. Maintaining the client on her left side would help to maximize uterine blood flow.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Constipation does not cause fever or vomiting but may cause anorexia. Risk of perforation outweighs the possible benefits of an enema. (B) Heat will not relieve her symptoms but will increase intestinal motility and increase the risk of perforation. (C) Heat and enemas are contraindicated where severe abdominal pain is suspected because they increase intestinal motility and the risk of perforation. (D) Complaints accompanied by physical symptoms such as pain, anorexia, and fever should never be ignored.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This action does nothing to prepare the child and her family for what will happen or to relieve their anxiety and fear. (B) This action provides security by preparing the child and the family for what will happen and will help to relieve fear and anxiety. (C) This action does nothing to help prepare the child for what will happen and does not give the parents permission to ask questions until later. (D) This action provides possibly false reassurance and may prevent the child and/or the family from asking pressing questions.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Skeletal traction, including the weights that are applying the traction, is never released by the nurse. (B) It is necessary to keep the pin site clean and free from infection. (C) When first placed in traction, the client may experience increased discomfort as a result of the traction pull fatiguing the muscle. (D) When the child in traction is allowed to participate in his care, it gives him a measure of control and helps him to cope with the situation. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 30
Questions 1. If an employee wants to participate in a union, they'll often have union dues to pay. The employer is obligated to deduct the payment from the employee's paycheck and give it to the union only if which condition is met?A) The person requesting for the union dues deduction must make the request in writing.B) The union representative must contact the employer and verify the request on behalf of the employee.C) The person requesting for the union dues deduction must be employed for more than 90 days.D) The person requesting for the union dues deduction must be employed for more than 120 days.2. John earns $45,200 per year as a mechanic in your organization. The $42,500 per year does not include earnings John may have through shift differentials, benefits, overtime, incentives, and bonuses. Which one of the following terms best describes the $45,200 per year that John earns?A) Base payB) Market-demand payC) Hygiene factor payD) Variable pay3. An organization would like to hire a 15-year old for some duties in their business. Which one of the following rules would be breaking the requirements of the child labor provisions of the FLSA?A) Non-school hours onlyB) 4 hours per school dayC) 8 hours in a non-school dayD) 18 hours per school week4. Mark is an HR Professional for his organization and he has been given the assignment to create an Affirmative Action Plan for his company. Mark will also be considered to be designated the responsibility for this Affirmative Action Plan. What does the designation of responsibility mean?A) It means that Mark will be the person that reports on the plan's implementation to managementB) It means that Mark will be the person that reports on the plan's implementation to the Department of LaborC) It means that Mark will be the person responsible for actually implementing the planD) It means that Mark will be the manager for all Affirmative Action scenarios and issues within his company5. COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, requires some organizations to offer continuation of group health care coverage to employees and family members based on certain qualifying events. How many employees must exist within an organization for COBRA requirements to be enforced?A) 20B) 100C) 50D) 10 Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 79
Questions 1. A 10-year-old client with a pin in the right femur is immobilized in traction. He is exhibiting behavioral changes including restlessness, difficulty with problem solving, inability to concentrate on activities, and monotony. Which of the following nursing implementations would be most effective in helping him cope with immobility?A) Providing him with books, challenging puzzles, and games as diversionary activitiesB) Allowing him to do as much for himself as he is able, including learning to do pin-site care under supervisionC) Having a volunteer come in to sit with the client and to read him storiesD) Stimulating rest and relaxation by gentle rubbing with lotion and changing the client - s position frequently2. Following a fracture of the left femur, a client develops symptoms of osteomyelitis. During the acute phase of osteomyelitis, nursing care is directed toward:A) Moving or turning the client - s left leg carefully to minimize pain and discomfortB) Allowing the client out of bed only in a wheelchair or gurney to minimize weight bearing on the left legC) Providing the client with a high-protein, high-fiber diet to promote healingD) Instituting physical therapy to ensure restoration of optimal functioning of the leg3. Several months after antibiotic therapy, a child is readmitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of osteomyelitis, which is now in the chronic stage. The mother appears anxious and asks what she could have done to prevent the exacerbation. The nurses response is based on the knowledge that chronic osteomyelitis:A) Is caused by poor physical conditions or poor nutritionB) Often results from unhygienic conditions or an unclean environmentC) Is directly related to sluggish circulation in the affected limbD) May develop from sinuses in the involved bone that retain infectious material4. A 5-year-old child was recently diagnosed as having acute lymphoid leukemia. She is hospitalized for additional tests and to begin a course of chemotherapy designed to induce a remission. She is scheduled to have a bone marrow aspiration tomorrow. She has had a bone marrow test previously and is apprehensive about having another. Which of the following interventions will be most effective in relieving her anxiety?A) Explain what will take place and what she will see, feel, and hear.B) Remind her that she has had this procedure before and that it is nothing to be afraid of.C) Tell her not to worry about it, that it will be over soon and she can join her friends in the playroom.D) Give her a big hug and tell her that she is a big girl now and that she will do just fine.5. Parents of children receiving chemotherapy should be warned that alopecia is a side effect and that:A) Children seldom show concern about losing their hairB) The hair will come out gradually, and the loss will not be noticeable for some timeC) It is best for girls to choose a wig similar to their hair style and color before the hair falls outD) The parents will soon get used to seeing their children without hair, and it will no longer bother them Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) These activities could be frustrating for the client if he is having difficulty with problem solving and concentration. (B) Selfcare is usually well received by the child, and it is one of the most useful interventions to help the child cope with immobility. (C) This may be helpful to the client if he has no visitors, but it does little to help him develop coping skills. (D) This will helpto prevent skin irritation or breakdown related to immobility but will not help to prevent behavioral changes related to immobility.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Any movement of his affected limb will cause discomfort to the child. (B) No weight bearing will be allowed until healing is well underway to avoid pathological fractures. (C) The child will be anorexic and may experience vomiting. Diet should be simple and high caloric until appetite returns and symptoms subside. (D)Physical therapy is instituted only after infection subsides.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Poor nutrition and/or poor physical conditions are factors that predispose to the development of osteomyelitis but do not cause it. (B) An unclean or unhygienic environment may predispose to the development of chronic osteomyelitis, but it does not cause an exacerbation of the previous infection. (C) Sluggish circulation through the medullary cavity during acute osteomyelitis may delay healing, but it does not cause the disease to become chronic. (D) Areas of sequestrum may be surrounded by dense bone, become honeycombed with sinuses, and retain infectious organisms for a long time.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Even though the child has had the procedure before, she will probably need additional explanations and emotional support. (B) The fact that the child has had the procedure before and possibly found it painful or uncomfortable may increase, not relieve, her stress. (C) This intervention does nothing to reassure the child and may well prevent her from expressing her feelings. (D) This does not prepare the child for the test and burdens her with the expectation that she act bigger and braver than she is.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Children may become depressed with a changed appearance and not want to look at themselves or have others see them. (B) The hair will fall out in clumps, causing patchy baldness that is quite noticeable and traumatic to children and their families. (C) Having a wig that looks like a girls own hair can be a psychological boost to children and is helpful in fostering later adjustments to hair loss. (D) Families may become accustomed to seeing their children without hair, but the loss is traumatic to them and will continue to bother them. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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