Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 3
Questions 1. Provide the 1-minute Apgar score for an infant born with the following findings: Heart rate: Above 100 Respiratory effort: Slow, irregular Muscle tone: Some flexion of extremities Reflex irritability: Vigorous cry Color: Body pink, blue extremitiesA) 7B) 10C) 8D) 92. A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is followed for PIH and develops proteinuria. To increase protein in her diet, which of the following foods will provide the greatest amount of protein when added to her intake of 100 mL of milk?A) Fifty milliliters light cream and 2 tbsp corn syrupB) Thirty grams powdered skim milk and 1 eggC) One small scoop (90 g) vanilla ice cream and 1 tbsp chocolate syrupD) One package vitamin-fortified gelatin drink3. The physician recommends immediate hospital admission for a client with PIH. She says to the nurse, 'It - s not so easy for me to just go right to the hospital like that.' After acknowledging her feelings, which of these approaches by the nurse would probably be best?A) Stress to the client that her husband would want her to do what is best for her health.B) Explore with the client her perceptions of why she is unable to go to the hospital.C) Repeat the physician - s reasons for advising immediate hospitalization.D) Explain to the client that she is ultimately responsible for her own welfare and that of her baby.4. Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?A) Chills shortly after deliveryB) Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery dayC) Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after deliveryD) An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery5. What is the most effective method to identify early breast cancer lumps?A) Mammograms every 3 yearsB) Yearly checkups performed by physicianC) Ultrasounds every 3 yearsD) Monthly breast self-examination Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Seven out of a possible perfect score of 10 is correct. Two points are given for heart rate above 100; 1 point is given for slow, irregular respiratory effort; 1 point is given for some flex- ion of extremities in assessing muscle tone; 2 points are given for vigorous cry in assessing reflex irritability; 1 point is assessed for color when the body is pink with blue extremities (acrocyanosis). (B) For a perfect Apgar score of 10, the infant would have a heart rate over 100 but would also have a good cry, active motion, and be completely pink. (C) For an Apgar score of 8 the respiratory rate, muscle tone, or color would need to fall into the 2-point rather than the 1-point category. (D) For this infant to receive an Apgar score of 9, four of the areas evaluated would need ratings of 2 points and one area, a rating of 1 point.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This choice would provide more unwanted fat and sugar than protein. (B) Skim milk would add protein. Eggs are good sources of protein while low in fat and calories. (C) The benefit of protein from ice cream would be outweighed by the fat content. Chocolate syrup has caffeine, which is contraindicated or limited in pregnancy. (D) Although most animal proteins are higher in protein than plant proteins, gelatin is not. It loses protein during the processing for food consumption.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer does not hold the client accountable for her own health. (B) The nurse should explore potential reasons for the clients anxiety: are there small children at home, is the husband out of town? The nurse should aid the client in seeking support or interventions to decrease the anxiety of hospitalization. (C)Repeating the physicians reason for recommending hospitalization may not aid the client in dealing with her reasons for anxiety. (D) The concern for self and welfare of baby may be secondary to a woman who is in a crisis situation. The nurse should explore the clients potential reasons for anxiety. For example, is there another child in the home who is ill, or is there a husband who is overseas and not able to return on short notice?4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C) Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (1224 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must eliminate an estimated 20003000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However, any temperature greater than100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Mammograms are less effective than breast self-examination for the diagnosis of abnormalities in younger women, who have denser breast tissue. They are more effective forwomen older than 40. (B) Up to 15% of early-stage breast cancers are detected by physical examination; however, 95% are detected by women doing breast self-examination. (C) Ultrasound is used primarily to determine the location of cysts and to distinguish cysts from solid masses. (D) Monthly breast self-examination has been shown to be the most effective method for early detection of breast cancer. Approximately 95% of lumps are detected by women themselves. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 4
Questions 1. Which of the following risk factors associated with breast cancer would a nurse consider most significant in a client - s history?A) Menarche after age 13B) NulliparityC) Maternal family history of breast cancerD) Early menopause2. Which of the following procedures is necessary to establish a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer?A) DiaphanographyB) MammographyC) ThermographyD) Breast tissue biopsy3. The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:A) Tumor sizeB) Axillary node statusC) Client - s previous history of diseaseD) Client - s level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays4. When teaching a sex education class, the nurse identifies the most common STDs in the United States as:A) ChlamydiaB) Herpes genitalisC) SyphilisD) Gonorrhea5. A 30-year-old male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. For the last 2 months, his family describes him as being 'on the move,' sleeping 3 - 4 hours nightly, spending lots of money, and losing approximately 10 lb. During the initial assessment with the client, the nurse would expect him to exhibit which of the following?A) Short, polite responses to interview questionsB) Introspection related to his present situationC) Exaggerated self-importanceD) Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Women who begin menarche late (after 13 years old) have a lower risk of developing breast cancer than women who have begun earlier. Average age for menarche is 12.5 years. (B) Women who have never been pregnant have an increased risk for breast cancer, but a positive family history poses an even greater risk. (C) A positive family history puts a woman at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. It is recommended that mammography screening begin 5 years before the age at which an immediate female relative was diagnosed with breast cancer. (D) Early menopause decreases the risk of developing breast cancer.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Diaphanography, also known as transillumination, is a painless, noninvasive imaging technique that involves shining a light source through the breast tissue to visualize the interior. It must be used in conjunction with a mammogram and physical examination. (B) Mammography is a useful tool for screening but is not considered a means of diagnosing breast cancers. (C) Thermography is a pictorial representation of heat patterns on the surface of the breast. Breast cancers appear as a 'hot spot' owing to their higher metabolic rate. (D) Biopsy either by needle aspiration or by surgical incision is the primary diagnostic technique for confirming the presence of cancer cells.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. (B) Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. (C) The clients previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. (D)The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fedfrom an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common STD in the United States. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend screening of all high-risk women, such as adolescents and women with multiple sex partners. (B) Herpes simplex genitalia is estimated to be found in 520 million people in theUnited States and is rising in occurrence yearly. (C) Syphilis is a chronic infection caused by Treponema pallidum. Over the last several years the number of people infected has begun to increase. (D) Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by the organism Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Although gonorrhea is common, chlamydia is still the most common STD.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients have short attention spans and may be abusive toward authority figures. (B) Introspection requires focusing and concentration; clients with mania experience flight of ideas, which prevents concentration.(C) Grandiosity and an inflated sense of self-worth are characteristic of this disorder. (D) Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness are symptoms of the depressive stage of bipolar disorder. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 5
Questions 1. The therapeutic blood-level range for lithium is:A) 0.25 - 1.0 mEq/LB) 0.5 - 1.5 mEq/LC) 1.0 - 2.0 mEq/LD) 2.0 - 2.5 mEq/L2. A client with bipolar disorder taking lithium tells the nurse that he has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and diarrhea. The nurse notices a slight tremor in his left hand and a slurring pattern to his speech. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?A) Administer a stat dose of lithium as necessary.B) Recognize this as an expected response to lithium.C) Request an order for a stat blood lithium level.D) Give an oral dose of lithium antidote.3. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate during occupational therapy for a client with bipolar disorder?A) Playing cards with other clientsB) Working crossword puzzlesC) Playing tennis with a staff memberD) Sewing beads on a leather belt4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?A) Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carriedB) Tube feedings with nutritional supplementsC) Allowing him to eat when and what he wantsD) Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals5. Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, 'I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?A) 'I don - t think you are worthless. I - m glad to see you, and we will help you.'B) 'Don - t you think this is a sign of your illness?'C) 'I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for.'D) 'You - ve been feeling sad and alone for some time now?' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This range is too low to be therapeutic. (B) This is the therapeutic range for lithium. (C) This range is above the therapeutic level. (D) This range is toxic and may cause severe side effects.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) These symptoms are indicative of lithium toxicity. A stat dose of lithium could be fatal. (B) These are toxic effects of lithium therapy. (C) The client is exhibiting symptoms of lithium toxicity, which may be validated by lab studies. (D) There is no known lithium antidote.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This activity is too competitive, and the manic client might become abusive toward the other clients. (B) During mania, the clients attention span is too short to accomplish this task. (C) This activity uses gross motor skills, eases tension, and expands excess energy. A staff member is better equipped to interact therapeutically with clients. (D) This activity requires the use of fine motor skills and is very tedious.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with finger foods allow him to eat during periods of activity.(B) This type of therapy should be implemented when other methods have been exhausted. (C) The manic client should not be in control of his treatment plan.This type of client may forget to eat. (D) The manic client is unable to sit down to eat full meals.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This response does not acknowledge the clients feelings.(B) This is a closed question and does not encourage communication.(C) This response negates the clients feelings and does not require a response from the client. (D) This acknowledges the clients implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 6
Questions 1. Which of the following statements relevant to a suicidal client is correct?A) The more specific a client - s plan, the more likely he or she is to attempt suicide.B) A client who is unsuccessful at a first suicide attempt is not likely to make future attempts.C) A client who threatens suicide is just seeking attention and is not likely to attempt suicide.D) Nurses who care for a client who has attempted suicide should not make any reference to the word 'suicide' in order to protect the client - s ego.2. The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) for a depressed client. Which of the following should the nurse remember about fluoxetine?A) Because fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant, it may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.B) The therapeutic effect of the drug occurs 2 - 4 weeks after treatment is begun.C) Foods such as aged cheese, yogurt, soy sauce, and bananas should not be eaten with this drug.D) Fluoxetine may be administered safely in combination with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors.3. The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, 'My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me.' The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:A) 'It concerns me that you feel so badly when you have so many positive things in your life.'B) 'It will take a few weeks for you to feel better, so you need to be patient.'C) 'You are telling me that you are feeling hopeless at this point?'D) 'Let - s play cards with some of the other clients to get your mind off your problems for now.'4. A long-term goal for the nurse in planning care for a depressed, suicidal client would be to:A) Provide him with a safe and structured environment.B) Assist him to develop more effective coping mechanisms.C) Have him sign a 'no-suicide' contract.D) Isolate him from stressful situations that may precipitate a depressive episode.5. After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:A) SuicideB) Exacerbation of depressive symptomsC) Violence toward othersD) Psychotic behavior Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) This is a high-risk factor for potential suicide. (B) A previous suicide attempt is a definite risk factor for subsequent attempts. (C) Every threat of suicide should be taken seriously. (D) The client should be asked directly about his or her intent to do bodily harm. The client is never hurt by direct, respectful questions.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Fluoxetine is not a tricyclic antidepressant. It is an atypical antidepressant. (B) This statement is true. (C) These foods are high in tyramine and should be avoided when the client is taking MAO inhibitors. Fluoxetine is not an MAO inhibitor. (D) Fatal reactions have been reported in clients receiving fluoxetine in combination with MAO inhibitors.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This response does not acknowledge the clients feelings and may increase his feelings of guilt. (B) This response denotes false reassurance. (C) This response acknowledges the clients feelings and invites a response. (D) This response changes the subject and does not allow the client to talk about his feelings.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This statement represents a short-term goal. (B) Long-term therapy should be directed toward assisting the client to cope effectively with stress. (C) Suicide contracts represent short-term interventions. (D) This statement represents an unrealistic goal. Stressful situations cannot be avoided in reality.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. (B) Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. (C) Thedepressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. (D) Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 7
Questions 1. Nursing care for the substance abuse client experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium includes:A) Maintaining seizure precautionsB) Restricting fluid intakeC) Increasing sensory stimuliD) Applying ankle and wrist restraints2. A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of hallucination?A) AuditoryB) GustatoryC) OlfactoryD) Visceral3. Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible damage after submersion in water is the:A) Kidney (urinary system)B) Brain (nervous system)C) Heart (circulatory system)D) Lungs (respiratory system)4. An 8-year-old child comes to the physician - s office complaining of swelling and pain in the knees. His mother says, 'The swelling occurred for no reason, and it keeps getting worse.' The initial diagnosis is Lyme disease. When talking to the mother and child, questions related to which of the following would be important to include in the initial history?A) A decreased urinary output and flank painB) A fever of over 103F occurring over the last 2 - 3 weeksC) Rashes covering the palms of the hands and the soles of the feetD) Headaches, malaise, or sore throat5. The most commonly known vectors of Lyme disease are:A) MitesB) FleasC) TicksD) Mosquitoes Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) These clients are at high risk for seizures during the 1st week after cessation of alcohol intake. (B) Fluid intake should be increased to prevent dehydration. (C)Environmental stimuli should be decreased to prevent precipitation of seizures. (D) Application of restraints may cause the client to increase his or her physical activity and may eventually lead to exhaustion.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The kidney can survive after 30 minutes of water submersion. (B) The cerebral neurons sustain irreversible damage after 46 minutes of water submersion.(C) The heart can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion. (D) The lungs can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Urinary tract symptoms are not commonly associated with Lyme disease. (B) A fever of 103F is not characteristic of Lyme disease. (C) The rash that is associated with Lyme diseasedoes not appear on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. (D) Classic symptoms of Lyme disease include headache, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, stiff neck, generalized lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, conjunctivitis, sore throat, abdominal pain, and cough.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Mites are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (B) Fleas are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (C) Ticks are the common vector of Lyme disease.(D) Mosquitoes are not the common vector of Lyme disease. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 8
Questions 1. A laboratory technique specific for diagnosing Lyme disease is:A) Polymerase chain reactionB) Heterophil antibody testC) Decreased serum calcium levelD) Increased serum potassium level2. The nurse would expect to include which of the following when planning the management of the client with Lyme disease?A) Complete bed rest for 6 - 8 weeksB) Tetracycline treatmentC) IV amphotericin BD) High-protein diet with limited fluids3. A 3-year-old child is hospitalized with burns covering her trunk and lower extremities. Which of the following would the nurse use to assess adequacy of fluid resuscitation in the burned child?A) Blood pressureB) Serum potassium levelC) Urine outputD) Pulse rate4. Proper positioning for the child who is in Bryant - s traction is:A) Both hips flexed at a 90-degree angle with the knees extended and the buttocks elevated off the bedB) Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexedC) The affected leg extended with slight hip flexionD) Both hips and knees maintained at a 90-degree flexion angle, and the back flat on the bed5. A child sustains a supracondylar fracture of the femur. When assessing for vascular injury, the nurse should be alert for the signs of ischemia, which include:A) Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhageB) Increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminaseC) Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysisD) Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Polymerase chain reaction is the laboratory technique specific for Lyme disease. (B) Heterophil antibody test is used to diagnose mononucleosis. (C) Lyme disease does not decrease the serum calcium level. (D) Lyme disease does not increase the serum potassium level.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The client is not placed on complete bed rest for 6 weeks. (B) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice for children with Lyme disease who are over the age of 9.(C) IV amphotericin B is the treatment for histoplasmosis. (D) The client is not restricted to a high-protein diet with limited fluids.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Blood pressure can remain normotensive even in a state of hypovolemia. (B) Serum potassium is not reliable for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation.(C) Urine output, alteration in sensorium, and capillary refill are the most reliable indicators for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation. (D) Pulse rate may vary for many reasons and is not a reliable indicator for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The childs weight supplies the countertraction for Bryants traction; the buttocks are slightly elevated off the bed, and the hips are flexed at a 90-degree angle.Both legs are suspended by skin traction. (B) The child in Bucks extension traction maintains the legs extended and parallel to the bed. (C) The child in Russell traction maintains hip flexion of the affected leg at the prescribed angle with the leg extended. (D) The child in '90 90' traction maintains both hips and knees at a90-degree flexion angle and the back is flat on the bed.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage may occur due to injury but are not classic signs of ischemia. (B) An increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase is related to the disruption of muscle integrity. (C) Classic signs of ischemia related to vascular injury secondary to long bone fractures include the five 'P s': pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis. (D) Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus are common clinical manifestations of a fracture but not ischemia. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 9
Questions 1. When administering phenytoin (Dilantin) to a child, the nurse should be aware that a toxic effect of phenytoin therapy is:A) Stephens-Johnson syndromeB) Folate deficiencyC) Leukopenic aplastic anemiaD) Granulocytosis and nephrosis2. A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the parents, the nurse states that:A) Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizuresB) Febrile seizures do not usually recurC) There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizuresD) Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system3. When assessing a child with diabetes insipidus, the nurse should be aware of the cardinal signs of:A) Anemia and vomitingB) Polyuria and polydipsiaC) Irritability relieved by feeding formulaD) Hypothermia and azotemia4. The usual treatment for diabetes insipidus is with IM or SC injection of vasopressin tannate in oil. Nursing care related to the client receiving IM vasopressin tannate would include:A) Weigh once a week and report to the physician any weight gain of10 lb.B) Limit fluid intake to 500 mL/day.C) Store the medication in a refrigerator and allow to stand at room temperature for 30 minutes prior to administration.D) Hold the vial under warm water for 10 - 15 minutes and shake vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe.5. A child is admitted to the emergency room with her mother. Her mother states that she has been exposed to chickenpox. During the assessment, the nurse would note a characteristic rash:A) That is covered with vesicular scabs all in the macular stageB) That appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremitiesC) That first appears on the neck and spreads downwardD) That appears especially on the cheeks, which gives a'slapped-cheek' appearance Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Stephens-Johnson syndrome is a toxic effect of phenytoin. (B) Folate deficiency is a side effect of phenytoin, but not a toxic effect. (C) Leukopenic aplastic anemia is a toxic effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol). (D) Granulocytosis and nephrosis are toxic effects of trimethadione (Tridione).2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the temperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do so when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental retardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of the central nervous system.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Anemia and vomiting are not cardinal signs of diabetes insipidus. (B) Polyuria and polydipsia are the cardinal signs of diabetes insipidus. (C) Irritability relieved by feeding water, not formula, is a common sign, but not the cardinal sign, of diabetes insipidus. (D) Hypothermia and azotemia are signs, but not cardinal signs, of diabetes insipidus.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Weight should be obtained daily. (B) Fluid is not restricted but is given according to urine output. (C) The medication does not have to be stored in a refrigerator. (D) Holding the vial under warm water for 1015 minutes or rolling between your hands and shaking vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe activates the medication in the oil solution.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A rash with vesicular scabs in all stages (macule, papule, vesicle, and crusts). (B) A rash that appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities.(C) A rash that first appears on the neck and spreads downward is characteristic of rubeola and rubella. (D) A rash, especially on the cheeks, that gives a'slapped-cheek' appearance is characteristic of roseola. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 10
Questions 1. Discharge teaching was effective if the parents of a child with atopic dermatitis could state the importance of:A) Maintaining a high-humidified environmentB) Furry, soft stuffed animals for playC) Showering 3 - 4 times a dayD) Wrapping hands in soft cotton gloves2. The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is:A) To establish trust with the childB) To maintain communication with the familyC) To promote involvement in school activitiesD) To maintain nutritional requirements3. The child with iron poisoning is given IV deforoxamine mesylate (Desferal). Following administration, the child suffers hypotension, facial flushing, and urticaria.The initial nursing intervention would be to:A) Discontinue the IVB) Stop the medication, and begin a normal saline infusionC) Take all vital signs, and report to the physicianD) Assess urinary output, and if it is 30 mL an hour, maintain current treatment4. As the nurse assesses a male adolescent with chlamydia, the nurse determines that a sign of chlamydia is:A) Enlarged penisB) Secondary lymphadenitisC) EpididymitisD) Hepatomegaly5. When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:A) Fruit juicesB) Diluted carbonated drinksC) Soy-based, lactose-free formulaD) Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Maintaining a low-humidified environment. (B) Avoiding furry, soft stuffed animals for play, which may increase symptoms of allergy. (C) Avoiding showering, which irritates the dermatitis, and encouraging bathing 4 times a day in colloid bath for temporary relief. (D) Wrapping hands in soft cotton gloves to prevent skin damage during scratching.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is establishing a trusting relationship. (B) Maintaining a relationship with the family is important but having the trust of the child is a priority. (C) To promote involvement in school activities is inappropriate for a child who is autistic. (D) Maintaining nutritional requirements is not the primary problem of the autistic child.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The IV line should not be discontinued because other IV medications will be needed. (B) Stop the medication and begin a normal saline infusion. The child is exhibiting signs of an allergic reaction and could go into shock if the medication is not stopped. The line should be kept opened for other medication. (C) Taking vital signs and reporting to the physician is not an adequate intervention because the IV medication continues to flow. (D) Assessing urinary output and, if it is 30 mL an hour, maintaining current treatment is an inappropriate intervention owing to the childs obvious allergic reaction.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) An enlarged penis is not a sign of chlamydia. (B) Secondary lymphadenitis is a complication of lymphogranuloma venereum. (C) Untreated chlamydial infection can spread from the urethra, causing epididymitis, which presents as a tender, scrotal swelling. (D) Hepatomegaly is not a complication.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea. (B) Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. (C) Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. (D) Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 11
Questions 1. The primary reason that an increase in heart rate (100 bpm) detrimental to the client with a myocardial infarction (MI) is that:A) Stroke volume and blood pressure will drop proportionatelyB) Systolic ejection time will decrease, thereby decreasing cardiac outputC) Decreased contractile strength will occur due to decreased filling timeD) Decreased coronary artery perfusion due to decreased diastolic filling time will occur, which will increase ischemic damage to the myocardium2. To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occur with which of the following?A) Positive inotropic therapyB) Negative chronotropic therapyC) Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demandD) Afterload reduction therapy3. The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release?A) Norepinephrine (Levophed)B) Dobutamine (Dobutrex)C) Propranolol (Inderal)D) Epinephrine (Adrenalin)4. The following medications were noted on review of the clients home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels?A) KClB) Thyroid agentsC) QuinidineD) Theophylline5. In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery?A) Right coronary arteryB) Left main coronary arteryC) Circumflex coronary arteryD) Left anterior descending coronary artery Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Decreased stroke volume and blood pressure will occur secondary to decreased diastolic filling. (B) Tachycardia primarily decreases diastole; systolic time changes very little. (C) Contractility decreases owing to the decreased filling time and decreased time for fiber lengthening. (D) Decreased O2 supply due to decreased time for filling of the coronary arteriesincreases ischemia and infarct size. Tachycardia primarily robs the heart of diastolic time, which is the primary time for coronary artery filling.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Norepinephrines side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B)Dobutamines side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolols side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular contractions. (C)Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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