Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 21
Questions 1. An 83-year-old client has been hospitalized following a fall in his home. He has developed a possible fecal impaction. Which of the following assessment findings would be most indicative of a fecal impaction?A) Boardlike, rigid abdomenB) Loss of the urge to defecateC) Liquid stoolD) Abdominal pain2. The nurse provides a male client with diet teaching so that he can help prevent constipation in the future. Which food choices indicate that this teaching has been understood?A) Omelette and hash brownsB) Pancakes and syrupC) Bagel with cream cheeseD) Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half3. One of the medications that is prescribed for a male client is furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg bid. To reduce his risk of falls, the nurse would teach him to take this medication:A) On arising and no later than 6 PMB) At evenly spaced intervals, such as 8 AM and 8 PMC) With at least one glass of water per pillD) With breakfast and at bedtime4. The nurse teaches a male client ways to reduce the risks associated with furosemide therapy. Which of the following indicates that he understands this teaching?A) 'I - ll be sure to rise slowly and sit for a few minutes after lying down.'B) 'I - ll be sure to walk at least 2 - 3 blocks every day.'C) 'I - ll be sure to restrict my fluid intake to four or five glasses a day.'D) 'I - ll be sure not to take any more aspirin while I amon this drug.'5. A client is taught to eat foods high in potassium. Which food choices would indicate that this teaching has been successful?A) Pork chop, baked acorn squash, brussel sproutsB) Chicken breast, rice, and green beansC) Roast beef, baked potato, and diced carrotsD) Tuna casserole, noodles, and spinach Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) A boardlike, rigid abdomen would point to a perforated bowel, not a fecal impaction. (B) When a client is fecally impacted, a common symptom is the urge to defecate but the inability to do so. (C) When an impaction is present, only liquid stool will be able to pass around the impacted site. (D) Abdominal pain without distention is not a sign of a fecal impaction.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Eggs and hash browns do not provide much fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation. (B) Pancakes and syrup also have little fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation. (C) Bagel and cream cheese do not provide intestinal bulk. (D) A combination of oatmeal and fresh fruit will provide fiber and intestinal bulk.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) This option provides adequate spacing of the medication and will limit the clients need to get up to go to the bathroom during the night hours, when he is especially at high risk for falls. (B) This option would result in the need to get up during the night to urinate and would thus increase the risk of falls. This option also does not take into consideration the clients usual daily routine. (C) Taking this medication with at least one glass of water would not have an impact on the risk of falls. (D) This option would result in the need to get up during the night to urinate and would thus increase the risk of falls.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) This response will help to prevent the occurrence of postural hypotension, a common side effect of this drug and a common reason for falls. (B) Although walking is an excellent exercise, it is not specific to the reduction of risks associated with diuretic therapy. (C) Clients on diuretic therapy are generally taught to ensure that their fluid intake is at least 20003000 mL daily, unless contraindicated. (D) Aspirin is a safe drug to take along with furosemide.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Both acorn squash and brussels sprouts are potassium-rich foods. (B) None of these foods is considered potassium rich. (C) Only the baked potato is a potassium-rich food. (D) Spinach is the only potassium-rich food in this option. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 22
Questions 1. The nurse would be sure to instruct a client on the signs and symptoms of an eye infection and hemorrhage. These signs and symptoms would include:A) Blurred vision and dizzinessB) Eye pain and itchingC) Feeling of eye pressure and headacheD) Eye discharge and hemoptysis2. The nurse would teach a male client ways to minimize the risk of infection after eye surgery. Which of the following indicates the client needs further teaching?A) 'I will wash my hands before instilling eye medications.'B) 'I will wear sunglasses when going outside.'C) 'I will wear an eye patch for the first 3 postoperative days.'D) 'I will maintain the sterility of the eye medications.'3. With a geriatric client, the nurse should also assess whether he has been obtaining a yearly vaccination against influenza. Why is this assessment important?A) Influenza is growing in our society.B) Older clients generally are sicker than others when stricken with flu.C) Older clients have less effective immune systems.D) Older clients have more exposure to the causative agents.4. In evaluating the laboratory results of a client with severe pressure ulcers, the nurse finds that her albumin level is low. A decrease in serum albumin would contribute to the formation of pressure ulcers because:A) The proteins needed for tissue repair are diminished.B) The iron stores needed for tissue repair are inadequate.C) A decreased serum albumin level indicates kidney disease.D) A decreased serum albumin causes fluid movement into the blood vessels, causing dehydration.5. Which of the following menu choices would indicate that a client with pressure ulcers understands the role diet plays in restoring her albumin levels?A) Broiled fish with riceB) Bran flakes with fresh peachesC) Lasagna with garlic breadD) Cauliflower and lettuce salad Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Although blurred vision may occur, dizziness would not be associated with an infection or hemorrhage. (B) Eye pain is a symptom of hemorrhage within the eye, and itching is associated with infection. (C) Nausea and headache would not be usual symptoms of eye hemorrhage or infection. (D) Some eye discharge might be anticipated if an infection is present; hemoptysis would not.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hand washing would be an important action designed to prevent transmission of pathogens from the hands to the eye. (B) Wearing sunglasses when going outside will prevent airborne pathogens from entering the eye. (C) Eye patches are most frequently ordered to be worn while the client sleeps or naps, not constantly for this length of time. (D) Eye medications are sterile; clients need to be taught how to maintain this sterility.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Although influenza is common, the elderly are more at risk because of decreased effectiveness of their immune system, not because the incidence is increasing. (B) Older clients have the same degree of illness when stricken as other populations. (C) As people age, their immune system becomes less effective, increasing their risk for influenza. (D) Older clients have no more exposure to the causative agents than do school-age children, for example.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Serum albumin levels indicate the adequacy of protein stores available for tissue repair. (B) Serum albumin does not measure iron stores. (C) Serum albumin levels do not measure kidney function. (D) A decreased serum albumin level would cause fluid movement out of blood vessels, not into them.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Broiled fish and rice are both excellent sources of protein. (B) Fresh fruits are not a good source of protein. (C) Foods in the bread group are not high in protein. (D) Most vegetables are not high in protein; peas and beans are the major vegetables higher in protein. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 23
Questions 1. The nurse observes that a client has difficulty chewing and swallowing her food. A nursing response designed to reduce this problem would include:A) Ordering a full liquid diet for herB) Ordering five small meals for herC) Ordering a mechanical soft diet for herD) Ordering a puréed diet for her2. When a client with pancreatitis is discharged, the nurse needs to teach him how to prevent another occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following statements would indicate he has an understanding of his disease?A) 'I will not eat any raw or uncooked vegetables.'B) 'I will limit my alcohol to one cocktail per day.'C) 'I will look into attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.'D) 'I will report any changes in bowel movements to my doctor.'3. A 54-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a possible gastric ulcer. He is a heavy smoker. When discussing his smoking habits with him, the nurse should advise him to:A) Smoke low-tar, filtered cigarettesB) Smoke cigars insteadC) Smoke only right after mealsD) Chew gum instead4. Iron dextran (Imferon) is a parenteral iron preparation.The nurse should know that it:A) Is also called intrinsic factorB) Must be given in the abdomenC) Requires use of the Z-track methodD) Should be given SC5. A nasogastric (NG) tube inserted preoperatively is attached to low, intermittent suctions. A client with an NG tube exhibits these symptoms: He is restless; serum electrolytes are Na 138, K 4.0, blood pH 7.53. This client is most likely experiencing:A) HyperkalemiaB) HyponatremiaC) Metabolic acidosisD) Metabolic alkalosis Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Full liquids would be difficult to swallow if the muscle control of the swallowing act is affected; this is a probable reason for her difficulties, given her medical diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. (B) Five small meals would do little if anything to decrease her swallowing difficulties, other than assure that she tires less easily.(C) A mechanical soft diet should be easier to chew and swallow, because foods would be more evenly consistent. (D) A pureed diet would cause her to regress more than might be needed; the mechanical soft diet should be tried first.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Raw or uncooked vegetables are all right to eat postdischarge. (B) This client must avoid any alcohol intake. (C) The client displays awareness of the need to avoid alcohol. (D) This action would be pertinent only if fatty stools associated with chronic hepatitis were the problem.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A, B, D) Cigarettes, cigars, and chewing gum would stimulate gastric acid secretion. (C) Smoking on a full stomach minimizes effect of nicotine on gastric acid.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Intrinsic factor is needed to absorb vitamin B12.(B) Iron dextran is given parenterally, but Z-track in a large muscle. (C) A Ztrack method of injection is required to prevent staining and irritation of the tissue. (D) An SC injection is not deep enough and may cause subcutaneous fat abscess formation.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Sodium level is within normal limits. (B) Sodium level is within normal limits. (C) pH level is consistent with alkalosis. (D) With an NG tube attached to low, intermittent suction, acids are removed and a client will develop metabolic alkalosis. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 24
Questions 1. A client is experiencing muscle weakness and lethargy. His serum K+is 3.2. What other symptoms might he exhibit?A) TetanyB) DysrhythmiasC) Numbness of extremitiesD) Headache2. Following a gastric resection, which of the following actions would the nurse reinforce with the client in order to alleviate the distress from dumping syndrome?A) Eating three large meals a dayB) Drinking small amounts of liquids with mealsC) Taking a long walk after mealsD) Eating a low-carbohydrate diet3. Azulfidine (Sulfasalazine) may be ordered for a client who has ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is a nursing implication for this drug?A) Limit fluids to 500 mL/day.B) Administer 2 hours before meals.C) Observe for skin rash and diarrhea.D) Monitor blood pressure, pulse.4. Other drugs may be ordered to manage a client - s ulcerative colitis. Which of the following medications, if ordered, would the nurse question?A) Methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol)B) Loperamide (Imodium)C) PsylliumD) 6-Mercaptopurine5. A male client is scheduled for a liver biopsy. In preparing him for this test, the nurse should:A) Explain that he will be kept NPO for 24 hours before the examB) Practice with him so he will be able to hold his breath for 1 minuteC) Explain that he will be receiving a laxative to prevent a distended bowel from applying pressure on the liverD) Explain that his vital signs will be checked frequently after the test Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Tetany is seen with low calcium. (B) Low potassium causes dysrhythmias because potassium is responsible for cardiac muscle activity. (C) Numbness of extremities is seen with high potassium. (D) Headache is not associated with potassium excess or deficiency.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Six small meals are recommended. (B) Liquids after meals increase the time food empties from the stomach. (C) Lying down after meals is recommended to prevent gravity from producing dumping. (D) A low-carbohydrate diet will prevent a hypertonic bolus, which causes dumping.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Fluids up to 25003000 mL/day are needed to prevent kidney stones. (B) The client should be instructed to take oral preparations with meals or snacks to lessen gastric irritation. (C) Sulfasalazine causes skin rash and diarrhea. (D) Blood pressure and pulse are not altered by sulfasalazine.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Methylprednisolone sodium succinate is used for its anti-inflammatory effects. (B) Loperamide would be used to control diarrhea. (C) Psyllium may improve consistency of stools by providing bulk. (D) An immunosuppressant such as 6-mercaptopurine is used for chronic unrelenting Crohns disease.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) There is no NPO restriction prior to a liver biopsy. (B) The client would need to hold his breath for 510 seconds. (C) There is no pretest laxative given. (D)Following the test, the client is watched for hemorrhage and shock. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 25
Questions 1. After a liver biopsy, the best position for the client is:A) High FowlerB) ProneC) SupineD) Right lateral2. A complication for which the nurse should be alert following a liver biopsy is:A) Hepatic comaB) JaundiceC) AscitesD) Shock3. Which nursing implication is appropriate for a client undergoing a paracentesis?A) Have the client void before the procedure.B) Keep the client NPO.C) Observe the client for hypertension following the procedure.D) Place the client on the right side following the procedure.4. The nurse would assess the client - s correct understanding of the fertility awareness methods that enhance conception, if the client stated that:A) 'My sexual partner and I should have intercourse when my cervical mucosa is thick and cloudy.'B) 'At ovulation, my basal body temperature should rise about 0.5F.'C) 'I should douche immediately after intercourse.'D) 'My sexual partner and I should have sexual intercourse on day 14 of my cycle regardless of the length of the cycle.'5. A couple is planning the conception of their first child.The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:A) 14+2 daysB) 16+2 daysC) 20+2 daysD) 22+2 days Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (B) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (C) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (D)The right lateral position would allow pressure on the liver to prevent bleeding.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Hepatic coma may occur in liver disease due to the increased NH3levels, not due to liver biopsy. (B) Jaundice may occur due to increased bilirubin levels, not due to liver biopsy. (C) Ascites would occur due to portal hypertension, not due to liver biopsy. (D) Hemorrhage and shock are the most likely complications after liver biopsy because of already existing bleeding tendencies in the vascular makeup of the liver.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) A full bladder would impede withdrawal of ascitic fluid. (B) Keeping the client NPO is not necessary. (C) The client may exhibit signs and symptoms of shock and hypertension. (D) No position change is needed after the procedure.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) At ovulation, the cervical mucus is increased, stretchable, and watery clear. (B) Under the influence of progesterone, the basal body temperature increases slightly after ovulation. (C) To enhance fertility, measures should be taken that promote retention of sperm rather than removal. (D) Ovulation, the optimal time for conception, occurs 14+2 days before the next menses; therefore, the date of ovulation is directly related to the length of the menstrual cycle.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Ovulation is dependent on average length of menstrual cycle, not standard 14 days. (B) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 16). (C) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 equals 20). (D) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 22). .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 26
Questions 1. A client is pregnant with her second child. Her last menstrual period began on January 15. Her expected date of delivery would be:A) October 8B) October 15C) October 22D) October 292. The nurse instructs a pregnant client (G2P1) to rest in a side-lying position and avoid lying flat on her back. The nurse explains that this is to avoid 'vena caval syndrome,' a condition which:A) Occurs when blood pressure increases sharply with changes in positionB) Results when blood flow from the extremities is blocked or slowedC) Is seen mainly in first pregnanciesD) May require medication if positioning does not help3. A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before; the first delivery produced a viable baby girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the GTPAL system to record her obstetrical history, the nurse should record:A) 3-2-0-0-2B) 2-2-0-2-2C) 3-1-1-0-2D) 2-1-1-0-24. A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before; the first delivery produced a viable baby girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the gravida and para system to record the clients obstetrical history, the nurse should record:A) Gravida 3 para 1B) Gravida 3 para 2C) Gravida 2 para 1D) Gravida 2 para 25. A gravida 2 para 1 client is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. While she receives magnesium sulfate(MgSO4) therapy, the nurse knows it is safe to repeat the dosage if:A) Deep tendon reflexes are absentB) Urine output is 20 mL/hrC) MgSO4serum levels are>15 mg/dLD) Respirations are>16 breaths/min Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Incorrect application of Ngeles rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but subtracted 7 days rather than added. (B) Incorrect application of Ngeles rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but did not add 7 days. (C) Correct application of Ngeles rule: correctly subtracted 3 months and added 7 days. (D) Incorrect application of Ngeles rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but added 14 days instead of 7 days.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Blood pressure changes are predominantly due to pressure of the gravid uterus. (B) Pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava decreases blood return from lower extremities. (C) Inferior vena cava syndrome is experienced in the latter months of pregnancy regardless of parity. (D) There are no medications useful in the treatment of interior vena cava syndrome; alleviating pressure by position changes is effective.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This answer is an incorrect application of the GTPAL method.One prior pregnancy was a preterm birth at 36 weeks (T =1, P= 1; not T = 2). (B) This answer is an incorrect application of the GTPAL method. The client is currently pregnant for the third time (G = 3, not 2), one prior pregnancy was preterm (T= 1, P= 1; not T= 2), and she has had no prior abortions (A =0). (C) This answer is the correct application of GTPAL method. The client is currently pregnant for the third time (G =3), her first pregnancy ended at term (>37 weeks) (T =1), her second pregnancy ended preterm 2033 weeks) (P = 1), she has no history of abortion (A=0), and she has two living children (L = 2). (D) This answer is an incorrect application of the GTPAL method. The client is currently pregnant for the third time (G =3, not 2).4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is an incorrect application of gravida and para. The client has had two prior deliveries of more than 20 weeks gestation; therefore, para equals 2, not 1. (B) This answer is the correct application of gravida and para. The client is currently pregnant for the third time (G = 3), regardless of the length of the pregnancy, and has had two prior pregnancies with birth after the 20th week (P = 2), whether infant was alive or dead. (C) This answer is an incorrect application of gravida and para. The client is currently pregnant for the third time (G = 3, not 2); prior pregnancies lasted longer than 20 weeks (therefore, P = 2, not 1). (D)This is an incorrect application of gravida and para. Client is currently pregnant for third time (G = 3, not 2).5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) MgSO4is a central nervous system depressant. Loss of reflexes is often the first sign of developing toxicity. (B) Urinary output at 16 breaths/min indicate that toxic levels of magnesium have not been reached. Medication administration would be safe. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 27
Questions 1. Prenatal clients are routinely monitored for early signs of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). For the prenatal client, which of the following blood pressure changes from baseline would be most significant for the nurse to report as indicative of PIH?A) 136/88 to 144/93B) 132/78 to 124/76C) 114/70 to 140/88D) 140/90 to 148/982. In assisting preconceptual clients, the nurse should teach that the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which thickens the endometrial lining in which of the phases of the menstrual cycle?A) Menstrual phaseB) Proliferative phaseC) Secretory phaseD) Ischemic phase3. A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to:A) Gently pull the infant awayB) Withdraw the breast from the infant - s mouthC) Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouthD) Insert a clean finger into the baby - s mouth beside the nipple4. A gravida 2 para 1 client delivered a full-term newborn 12 hours ago. The nurse finds her uterus to be boggy, high, and deviated to the right. The most appropriate nursing action is to:A) Notify the physicianB) Place the client on a pad countC) Massage the uterus and re-evaluate in 30 minutesD) Have the client void and then re-evaluate the fundus5. A client delivered her first-born son 4 hours ago. She asks the nurse what the white cheeselike substance is under the baby - s arms. The nurse should respond:A) 'This is a normal skin variation in newborns. It will go away in a few days.'B) 'Let me have a closer look at it. The baby may have an infection.'C) 'This material, called vernix, covered the baby before it was born. It will disappear in a few days.'D) 'Babies sometimes have sebaceous glands that get plugged at birth. This substance is an example of that condition.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) These blood pressure changes reflect only an 8 mm Hg systolic and a 5 mm Hg diastolic increase, which is insufficient for blood pressure changes indicatingPIH. (B) These blood pressure changes reflect a decrease in systolic pressure of 8 mm Hg and diastolic pressure of 2 mm Hg; these values are not indicative of blood pressure increases reflecting PIH. (C) The definition of PIH is an increase in systolic blood pressure of 30 mm Hg and/or diastolic blood pressure of 15 mmHg. These blood pressures reflect a change of 26 mm Hg systolically and 18mm Hg diastolically. (D) These blood pressures reflect a change of only 8 mm Hg systolically and 8 mm Hg diastolically, which is insufficient for blood pressure changes indicating PIH.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Menses occurs during the menstrual phase, during which levels of both estrogen and progesterone are decreased. (B) The ovarian hormone responsible for the proliferative phase, during which the uterine endometrium enlarges, is estrogen. (C) The ovarian hormone responsible for the secretory phase is progesterone, which is secreted by the corpus luteum and causes marked swelling in the uterine endometrium. (D) The corpus luteum begins to degenerate in the ischemic phase, causing a fall in both estrogen and progesterone.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) In pulling the infant away from the breast without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (B) In pulling the breast away from the infant without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (C) Compressing the maternal tissue does not break the suction of the infant on the breast and can cause nipple trauma. (D) By inserting a finger into the infants mouth beside the nipple, the lactating mother can break the suction and the nipple can be removed without trauma.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) The nurse should initiate actions to remove the most frequent cause of uterine displacement, which involves emptying the bladder. Notifying the physician is an inappropriate nursing action. (B) The pad count gives an estimate of blood loss, which is likely to increase with a boggy uterus; but this action does not remove the most frequent cause of uterine displacement, which is a full bladder. (C) Massage may firm the uterus temporarily, but if a full bladder is not emptied, the uterus will remain displaced and is likely to relax again. (D) The most common cause of uterine displacement is a full bladder.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This response identifies the fact that vernix is a normal neonatal variation, but it does not teach the client medical terms that may be useful in understanding other healthcare personnel. (B) This response may raise maternal anxiety and incorrectly identifies a normal neonatal variation. (C) This response correctly identifies this neonatal variation and helps the client to understand medical terms as well as the characteristics of her newborn. (D) Blocked sebaceous glands produce milia, particularly present on the nose. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 28
Questions 1. A client is in early labor. Her fetus is in a left occipitoanterior (LOA) position; fetal heart sounds are best auscultated just:A) Below the umbilicus toward left side of mother - s abdomenB) Below the umbilicus toward right side of mother - s abdomenC) At the umbilicusD) Above the umbilicus to the left side of mother - s abdomen2. In performing the initial nursing assessment on a client at the prenatal clinic, the nurse will know that which of the following alterations is abnormal during pregnancy?A) Striae gravidarumB) ChloasmaC) DysuriaD) Colostrum3. A 35-weeks-pregnant client is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). During the 20-minute examination, the nurse notes three fetal movements accompanied by accelerations of the fetal heart rate, each 15 bpm, lasting15 seconds. The nurse interprets this test to be:A) NonreactiveB) ReactiveC) PositiveD) Negative4. The nurse is caring for a laboring client. Assessment data include cervical dilation 9 cm; contractions every 1 - 2 minutes; strong, large amount of 'bloody show.'The most appropriate nursing goal for this client would be:A) Maintain client - s privacy.B) Assist with assessment procedures.C) Provide strategies to maintain client control.D) Enlist additional caregiver support to ensure client - s safety.5. A client is admitted to the labor unit. On vaginal examination, the presenting part in a cephalic presentation was at station plus two. Station 12 means that the:A) Presenting part is 2 cm above the level of the ischial spinesB) Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spinesC) Presenting part is 2 cm below the level of the ischial spinesD) Biparietal diameter is 5 cm above the ischial spines Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) LOA identifies a fetus whose back is on its mothers left side, whose head is the presenting part, and whose back is toward its mothers anterior. It is easiest to auscultate fetal heart tones (FHTs) through the fetuss back. (B) The identified fetuss back is on its mothers left side, not right side. It is easiest to auscultateFHTs through the fetuss back. (C) In an LOA position, the fetuss head is presenting with the back to the left anterior side of the mother. The umbilicus is too high of a landmark for auscultating the fetuss heart rate through its back. (D) This is the correct auscultation point for a fetus in the left sacroanterior position, where the sacrum is presenting, not LOA.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Striae gravidarum are the normal stretch marks that frequently occur on the breasts, abdomen, and thighs as pregnancy progresses. (B) Chloasma is the'mask of pregnancy' that normally occurs in many pregnant women. (C) Dysuria is an abnormal danger sign during pregnancy and may indicate a urinary tract infection. (D) Colostrum is a yellow breast secretion that is normally present during the last trimester of pregnancy.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) In a nonreactive NST, the criteria for reactivity are not met. (B) A reactive NST shows at least two accelerations of FHR with fetal movements, each 15 bpm, lasting 15 seconds or more, over 20 minutes. (C, D) This term is used to interpret a contraction stress test (CST), or oxytocin challenge test, not an NST.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Privacy may help the laboring client feel safer, but measures that enhance coping take priority. (B) The frequency of assessments do increase in transition, but helping the client to maintain control and cope with this phase of labor takes on importance. (C) This laboring client is in transition, the most difficult part of the first stage of labor because of decreased frequency, increased duration and intensity, and decreased resting phase of the uterine contraction. The clients ability to cope is most threatened during this phase of labor, and nursing actions aredirected toward helping the client to maintain control. (D) Safety is a concern throughout labor, but helping the client to cope takes on importance in transition.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Station is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines. If the presenting part is above the ischial spines, the station is negative. (B) When the biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines, the presenting part is generally at a +4 or +5 station. (C) Station is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines. If the presenting part is below the ischial spines, the station is positive.Thus, 2 cm below the ischial spines is the station +2. (D) When the biparietal diameter is above the ischial spines by 5 cm, the presenting part is usually engaged or at station 0. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 29
Questions 1. A pregnant client is at the clinic for a third trimester prenatal visit. During this examination, it has been determined that her fetus is in a vertex presentation with the occiput located in her right anterior quadrant. On her chart this would be noted as:A) Right occipitoposteriorB) Right occipitoanteriorC) Right sacroanteriorD) LOA2. Assessment of parturient reveals the following: cervical dilation 6 cm and station 22; no progress in the last 4 hours. Uterine contractions decreasing in frequency and intensity. Marked molding of the presenting fetal head is described. The physician orders, 'Begin oxytocin induction at 1 mU/min.' The nurse should:A) Begin the oxytocin induction as orderedB) Increase the dosage by 2 mU/min increments at15-minute intervalsC) Maintain the dosage when duration of contractions is 40 - 60 seconds and frequency is at 21â?2 - 4 minute intervalsD) Question the order3. A client in active labor asks the nurse for coaching with her breathing during contractions. The client has attended Lamaze birth preparation classes. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?A) 'Keep breathing with your abdominal muscles as long as you can.'B) 'Make sure you take a deep cleansing breath as the contractions start, focus on an object, and breathe about 16 - 20 times a minute with shallow chest breaths.'C) 'Find a comfortable position before you start a contraction. Once the contraction has started, take slow breaths using your abdominal muscles.'D) 'If a woman in labor listens to her body and takes rapid, deep breaths, she will be able to deal with her contractions quite well.'4. A client is being discharged and will continue enteral feedings at home. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates the need for further teaching?A) 'If he develops diarrhea lasting for more than 2 - 3 days, I will contact the doctor or nurse.'B) 'I should anticipate that he will gain about 1 lb/day now that he is on continuous feedings.'C) 'It is important to keep the head of his bed elevated or sit him in the chair during feedings.'D) 'I should use prepared or open formula within 24 hours and store unused portions in the refrigerator.'5. A 74-year-old obese man who has undergone open reduction and internal fixation of the right hip is 8 days postoperative. He has a history of arthritis and atrial fibrillation. He admits to right lower leg pain, described as 'a cramp in my leg.' An appropriate nursing action is to:A) Assess for pain with plantiflexionB) Assess for edema and heat of the right legC) Instruct him to rub the cramp out of his legD) Elevate right lower extremity with pillows propped under the knee Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The fetus in the right occipitoposterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the maternal right posterior quadrant. (B) Fetal position is defined by the location of the fetal presenting part in the four quadrants of the maternal pelvis. The right occipitoanterior is a fetus presenting with the occiput in mothers right anterior quadrant. (C) The fetus in right sacroanterior position would be presenting a sacrum, not an occiput. (D) The fetus in left occipitoanterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the mothers left anterior quadrant.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Oxytocin stimulates labor but should not be used until CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) is ruled out in a dysfunctional labor. (B) This answer is the correct protocol for oxytocin administration, but the medication should not be used until CPD is ruled out. (C) This answer is the correct manner to interpret effective stimulation, but oxytocin should not be used until CPD is ruled out. (D) This answer is the appropriate nursing action because the scenario presents adysfunctional labor pattern that may be caused by CPD. Oxytocin administration is contraindicated in CPD.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Lamaze childbirth preparation teaches the use of chest, not abdominal, breathing. (B) In Lamaze preparation, every patterned breath is preceded by a cleansing breath; as labor progresses, shallow, paced breathing is found to be effective. (C) It is important to assume a comfortable position in labor, but theLamazeprepared laboring woman is taught to breathe with her chest, not abdominal, muscles. (D) When deep chest breathing patterns are used in Lamaze preparation, they are slowly paced at a rate of 69 breaths/min.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Diarrhea is a complication of tube feedings that can lead to dehydration. Diarrhea may be the result of hypertonic formulas that can draw fluid into the bowel.Other causes of diarrhea may be bacterial contamination, fecal impaction, medications, and low albumin. (B) A consistent weight gain of more than 0.22 kg/day (12 lb/day) over several days should be reported promptly. The client should be evaluated for fluid volume excess. (C) Elevating the clients head prevents reflux and thus formula from entering the airway. (D) Bacteria proliferate rapidly in enteral formulas and can cause gastroenteritis and even sepsis.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot (Homans sign) can be a sign of a deep venous thrombosis; however, it is not diagnostic of the condition. (B) Swelling and warmth along the affected vein are commonly observed clinical manifestations of a deep venous thrombosis as a result of inflammation of the vessel wall. (C)Rubbing or massaging of the affected leg is contraindicated because of the risk of the clot breaking loose and becoming an embolus. (D) A pillow behind the knee can be constricting and further impair blood flow. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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