Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 12
Questions 1. When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:A) PericarditisB) AnxietyC) Congestive heart failureD) Angina2. When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the nurses response should be based on the fact that:A) The test provides a baseline for further testsB) The procedure simulates usual daily activity and myocardial performanceC) The client can be monitored while cardiac conditioning and heart toning are doneD) Ischemia can be diagnosed because exercise increasesO2 consumption and demand3. In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:A) Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosisB) Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edemaC) Systemic venous engorgementD) Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy4. The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)B) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)C) Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)D) Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)5. Which of the following ECG changes would be seen as a positive myocardial stress test response?A) Hyperacute T waveB) Prolongation of the PR intervalC) ST-segment depressionD) Pathological Q wave Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not influenced by body position.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) The purpose of the study is not to provide a baseline for further tests. (B) The test causes an increase in O2 demand beyond that required to perform usual daily activities. (C) Monitoring does occur, but the test is not for the purpose of cardiac toning and conditioning. (D) Exercise ECG, or stress testing, is designed to elevate the peripheral and myocardial needs for O2 to evaluate the ability of the myocardium and coronary arteries to meet the additional demands.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) These signs are seen in pulmonic stenosis or in response to pulmonary congestion and edema and mitral stenosis. (B) These signs are seen primarily in mitral stenosis or as a late sign in aortic stenosis after left ventricular failure. (C) These signs are seen primarily in right-sided heart valve dysfunction. (D) Left ventricular hypertrophy occurs to increase muscle mass and overcome the stenosis; left ventricular pressures increase as left ventricular volume increases owing to insufficient emptying.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hyperacute T waves occur with hyperkalemia. (B) Prolongation of the P R interval occurs with first-degree AV block. (C) Horizontal ST-segment depression of>1 mm during exercise isdefinitely a positive criterion on the exercise ECG test. (D) Patho-logical Q waves occur with MI. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 13
Questions 1. Assessment of the client with pericarditis may reveal which of the following?A) Ventricular gallop and substernal chest painB) Narrowed pulse pressure and shortness of breathC) Pericardial friction rub and pain on deep inspirationD) Pericardial tamponade and widened pulse pressure2. Clinical manifestations seen in left-sided rather than in right-sided heart failure are:A) Elevated central venous pressure and peripheral edemaB) Dyspnea and jaundiceC) Hypotension and hepatomegalyD) Decreased peripheral perfusion and rales3. Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?A) Positive inotropesB) VasodilatorsC) DiureticsD) Antidysrhythmics4. To ensure proper client education, the nurse should teach the client taking SL nitroglycerin to expect which of the following responses with administration?A) Stinging, burning when placed under the tongueB) Temporary blurring of visionC) Generalized urticaria with prolonged useD) Urinary frequency5. When a client is receiving vasoactive therapy IV, such as dopamine (Intropin), and extravasation occurs, the nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following medications directly into the site?A) Phentolamine (Regitine)B) EpinephrineC) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)D) Sodium bicarbonate Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) No S3 or S4 are noted with pericarditis. (B) No change in pulse pressure occurs. (C) The symptoms of pericarditis vary with the cause, but they usually include chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, rise in temperature, and friction rub caused by fibrin or other deposits. The pain seen with pericarditis typically worsens with deep inspiration. (D) Tamponade is not typically seen early on, and no change in pulse pressure occurs.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A, B, C) Clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure are weakness, peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and elevated central venous pressure. (D) Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure are left ventricular dysfunction, decreased cardiac output, hypotension, and the backward failure as a result of increased left atrium and pulmonary artery pressures, pulmonary edema, and rales.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (B) Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. (C)Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemia. (D) Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Stinging or burning when nitroglycerin is placed under the tongue is to be expected. This effect indicates that the medication is potent and effective for use.Failure to have this response means that the client needs to get a new bottle of nitroglycerin. (B, C, D) The other responses are not expected in this situation and are not even side effects.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Phentolamine is given to counteract the-adrenergic effects that cause ischemia and necrosis of local tissue. (B) Epinephrine is an endogenous catecholamine that produces vasoconstriction and increases heart rate and contractility. (C) Phenylephrine causes constriction of arterioles of skin, mucous membranes, and viscera, which in turn can cause ischemia and necrosis. (D) Sodium bicarbonate is an alkalinizing agent that is incompatible with dopamine. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 14
Questions 1. Which of the following would differentiate acute from chronic respiratory acidosis in the assessment of the trauma client?A) Increased PaCO2B) Decreased PaO2C) Increased HCO3D) Decreased base excess2. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicates a tension pneumothorax as compared to an open pneumothorax?A) Ventilation-perfusion (V./Q.) mismatchB) Hypoxemia and respiratory acidosisC) Mediastinal tissue and organ shiftingD) Decreased tidal volume and tachypnea3. Hematotympanum and otorrhea are associated with which of the following head injuries?A) Basilar skull fractureB) Subdural hematomaC) Epidural hematomaD) Frontal lobe fracture4. A client with a C-3 - 4 fracture has just arrived in the emergency room. The primary nursing intervention is:A) Stabilization of the cervical spineB) Airway assessment and stabilizationC) Confirmation of spinal cord injuryD) Normalization of intravascular volume5. In a client with chest trauma, the nurse needs to evaluate mediastinal position. This can best be done by:A) Auscultating bilateral breath soundsB) Palpating for presence of crepitusC) Palpating for trachial deviationD) Auscultating heart sounds Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Increased CO2 will occur in both acute and chronic respiratory acidosis. (B) Hypoxia does not determine acid-base status. (C) Elevation of HCO3 is a compensatory mechanism in acidosis that occurs almost immediately, but it takes hours to show any effect and days to reach maximum compensation. Renal disease and diuretic therapy may impair the ability of the kidneys to compensate. (D) Base excess is a nonrespiratory contributor to acid-base balance. It would increase to compensate for acidosis.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A, B, D) These occur in both tension pneumothorax and open pneumothorax. (C) The tension pneumothorax acts like a one- way valve so that the pneumothorax increases with each breath. Eventually, it occupies enough space to shift mediastinal tissue toward the unaffected side away from the midline. Tracheal deviation, movement of point of maximum impulse, and decreased cardiac output will occur. The other three options will occur in both types of pneumothorax.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Basilar skull fractures are fractures of the base of the skull. Blood behind the eardrum or blood or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear are indicative of a dural laceration. Basilar skull fractures are the only type with these symptoms. (B, C, D) These do not typically cause dural lacerations and CSF leakage.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) If cervical spine injury is suspected, the airway should be maintained using the jaw thrust method that also protects the cervical spine. (B) Primary intervention is protection of the airway and adequate ventilation. (C, D) All other interventions are secondary to adequate ventilation.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) No change in the breath sounds occurs as a direct result of the mediastinal shift. (B) Crepitus can occur owing to the primary disorder, not to the mediastinal shift. (C) Mediastinal shift occurs primarily with tension pneumothorax, but it can occur with very large hemothorax or pneumothorax. Mediastinal shift causes trachial deviation and deviation of the hearts point of maximum impulse. (D) No change in the heart sounds occurs as a result of the mediastinal shift. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 15
Questions 1. Priapism may be a sign of:A) Altered neurological functionB) Imminent deathC) Urinary incontinenceD) Reproductive dysfunction2. When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that:A) In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dryB) In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardiaC) In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 secondsD) In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill3. Which of the following would have the physiological effect of decreasing intracranial pressure (ICP)?A) Increased core body temperatureB) Decreased serum osmolalityC) Administration of hypo-osmolar fluidsD) Decreased PaCO24. A client who has sustained a basilar skull fracture exhibits blood-tinged drainage from his nose. After establishing a clear airway, administering supplemental O2, and establishing IV access, the next nursing intervention would be to:A) Pass a nasogastric tube through the left nostrilB) Place a 4 X 4 gauze in the nares to impede the flowC) Gently suction the nasal drainage to protect the airwayD) Perform a halo test and glucose level on the drainage5. A client with a diagnosis of C-4 injury has been stabilized and is ready for discharge. Because this client is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia, he and his family should be instructed to assess for and report:A) Dizziness and tachypneaB) Circumoral pallor and lightheadednessC) Headache and facial flushingD) Pallor and itching of the face and neck Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Priapism in the trauma client is due to the neurological dysfunction seen in spinal cord injury. Priapism is an abnormal erection of the penis; it may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. This may disappear as spinal cord edema is relieved. (B) Priapism is not associated with death. (C) Urinary retention, rather than incontinence, may occur. (D) Reproductive dysfunction may be a secondary problem.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Neurogenic shock is caused by injury to the cervical region, which leads to loss of sympathetic control. This loss leads to vasodilation of the vascular beds, bradycardia resulting from the lack of sympathetic balance to parasympathetic stimuli from the vagus nerve, and the loss of the ability to sweat below the level of injury. In neurogenic shock, the client is hypotensive but bradycardiac with warm, dry skin. (B) In hypovolemic shock, the client ishypotensive and tachycardiac with cool skin. (C) In hypovolemic shock, the capillary refill would be>5 seconds. (D) In neurogenic shock, there is no capillary delay, the vascular beds are dilated, and peripheral flow is good.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) An increase in core body temperature increases metabolism and results in an increase in ICP. (B) Decreased serum osmolality indicates a fluid overload and may result in an increase in ICP. (C) Hypo-osmolar fluids are generally voided in the neurologically compromised. Using IV fluids such as D5W results in the dextrose being metabolized, releasing free water that is absorbed by the brain cells, leading to cerebral edema. (D) Hypercapnia and hypoventilation, which cause retention of CO2 and lead to respiratory acidosis, both increase ICP. CO2 is the most potent vasodilator known.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Basilar skull fracture may cause dural lacerations, which result in CSF leaking from the ears or nose. Insertion of a tube could lead to CSF going into the brain tissue or sinuses. (B) Tamponading flow could worsen the problem and increase ICP. (C) Suction could increase brain damage and dislocate tissue. (D) Testing the fluid from the nares would determine the presence of CSF. Elevation of the head, notification of the medical staff, and prophylactic antibiotics are appropriate therapy.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Tachypnea is not a symptom. (B) Circumoral pallor is not a symptom. (C) Autonomic dysreflexia is an uninhibited and exaggerated reflex of the autonomic nervous system to stimulation, which results in vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure. (D) Pallor and itching are not symptoms. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 16
Questions 1. The initial treatment for a client with a liquid chemical burn injury is to:A) Irrigate the area with neutralizing solutionsB) Flush the exposed area with large amounts of waterC) Inject calcium chloride into the burned areaD) Apply lanolin ointment to the area2. The most important reason to closely assess circumferential burns at least every hour is that they may result in:A) HypovolemiaB) Renal damageC) Ventricular arrhythmiasD) Loss of peripheral pulses3. During burn therapy, morphine is primarily administered IV for pain management because this route:A) Delays absorption to provide continuous pain reliefB) Facilitates absorption because absorption from muscles is not dependableC) Allows for discontinuance of the medication if respiratory depression developsD) Avoids causing additional pain from IM injections4. The medication that best penetrates eschar is:A) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)B) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)C) Neomycin sulfate (Neosporin)D) Povidone-iodine (Betadine)5. When the nurse is evaluating lab data for a client 1824 hours after a major thermal burn, the expected physiological changes would include which of the following?A) Elevated serum sodiumB) Elevated serum calciumC) Elevated serum proteinD) Elevated hematocrit Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) In the past, neutralizing solutions were recommended, but presently there is concern that these solutions extend the depth of burn area. (B) The use of large amounts of water to flush the area is recommended for chemical burns. (C) Calcium chloride is not recommended therapy and would likely worsen the problem.(D) Lanolin is of no benefit in the initial treatment of a chemical injury and may actually extend a thermal injury.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Hypovolemia could be a result of fluid loss from thermal injury, but not as a result of the circumferential injury. (B) Renal damage is typically seen because of prolonged hypovolemia or myoglobinuria. (C) Electrical injuries and electrolyte changes typically cause arrhythmias in the burn client. (D) Full-thickness circumferential burns are nonelastic and result in an internal tourniquet effect that compromises distal blood flow when the area involved is an extremity.Circumferential full-thickness torso burns compromise respiratory motion and, when extreme, cardiac return.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Absorption would be increased, not decreased. (B) IM injections should not be used until the client is hemodynamically stable and has adequate tissue perfusion. Medications will remain in the subcutaneous tissue with the fluid that is present in the interstitial spaces in the acute phase of the thermal injury. The client will have a poor response to the medication administered, and a 'dumping' of the medication can occur when the medication and fluid are shifted back into the intravascular spaces in the next phase of healing. (C) IV administration of the medication would hasten respiratory compromise, if present. (D) The desire to avoid causing the client additional pain is not a primary reason for this route of administration.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic against gram-positive and gram-negative organisms and is the agent that best penetrates eschar. (B) Silver sulfadiazine poorly penetrates eschar. (C) Neomycin sulfate does not penetrate eschar. (D) Povidoneiodine does not penetrate eschar.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Sodium enters the edema fluid in the burned area, lowering the sodium content of the vascular fluid. Hyponatremia may continue for days to several weeks because of sodium loss to edema, sodium shifting into the cells, and later, diuresis. (B) Hypocalcemia occurs because of calcium loss to edema fluid at the burned site (third space fluid). (C) Protein loss occurs at the burn site owing to increased capillary permeability. Serum protein levels remain low until healing occurs. (D)Hematocrit level is elevated owing to hemoconcentration from hypovolemia. Anemia is present in the postburn stage owing to blood loss and hemolysis, but it cannot be assessed until the client is adequately hydrated. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 17
Questions 1. The nurse notes hyperventilation in a client with a thermal injury. She recognizes that this may be a reaction to which of the following medications if applied in large amounts?A) Neosporin sulfateB) Mafenide acetateC) Silver sulfadiazineD) Povidone-iodine2. The primary reason for sending a burn client home with a pressure garment, such as a Jobst garment, is that the garment:A) Decreases hypertrophic scar formationB) Assists with ambulationC) Covers burn scars and decreases the psychological impact during recoveryD) Increases venous return and cardiac output by normalizing fluid status3. A client with emphysema is placed on diuretics. In order to avoid potassium depletion as a side effect of the drug therapy, which of the following foods should be included in his diet?A) CeleryB) PotatoesC) TomatoesD) Liver4. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find following respiratory assessment of a client with advanced emphysema?A) Distant breath soundsB) Increased heart soundsC) Decreased anteroposterior chest diameterD) Collapsed neck veins5. The nurse assists a client with advanced emphysema to the bathroom. The client becomes extremely short of breath while returning to bed. The nurse should:A) Increase his nasal O2 to 6 L/minB) Place him in a lateral Sims - positionC) Encourage pursed-lip breathingD) Have him breathe into a paper bag Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The side effects of neomycin sulfate include rash, urticaria, nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity. (B) The side effects of mafenide acetate include bone marrow suppression, hemolytic anemia, eosinophilia, and metabolic acidosis. The hyperventilation is a compensatory response to the metabolic acidosis. (C) The side effects of silver sulfadiazine include rash, itching, leukopenia, and decreased renal function. (D) The primary side effect of povidone- iodine is decreased renal function.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Tubular support, such as that received with a Jobst garment, applies tension of 1020 mm Hg. This amount of uniform pressure is necessary to prevent or reduce hypertrophic scarring. Clients typically wear a pressure garment for 612 months during the recovery phase of their care. (B) Pressure garments have no ambulatory assistive properties. (C) Pressure garments can worsen the psychological impact of burn injury, especially if worn on the face. (D) Pressure garments do not normalize fluid status.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Celery is high in sodium. (B) Potatoes are high in potassium. (C) Tomatoes are high in sodium. (D) Liver is high in iron.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Distant breath sounds are found in clients with emphysema owing to increased anteroposterior chest diameter, overdistention, and air trapping. (B) Deceased heart sounds arepresent because of the increased anteroposterior chest diameter. (C) A barrel- shaped chest is characteristic of emphysema. (D) Increased distention of neck veins is found owing to right-sided heart failure, which may be present in advanced emphysema.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Giving too high a concentration of O2 to a client with em-physema may remove his stimulus to breathe. (B) The client should sit forward with his hands on his knees or an overbed table and with shoulders elevated. (C) Pursed-lip breathing helps the client to blow off CO2 and to keep air passages open. (D) Covering the face of a client extremely short of breath may cause anxiety and further increase dyspnea. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 18
Questions 1. Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?A) Wheezing on inspirationB) Increased respiratory rateC) Circumoral cyanosisD) Prolonged expiration2. A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with complaints of fatigue, jaundice, anorexia, and clay-colored stools. His admitting diagnosis is 'rule out hepatitis.'Laboratory studies reveal elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin. In obtaining his health history, the nurse should assess his potential for exposure to hepatitis.Which of the following represents a high-risk group for contracting this disease?A) Heterosexual malesB) Oncology nursesC) American IndiansD) Jehovah - s Witnesses3. A diagnosis of hepatitis C is confirmed by a male clients physician. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the differences between hepatitis A, B, and C. Which of the following are characteristics of hepatitis C?A) The potential for chronic liver disease is minimal.B) The onset of symptoms is abrupt.C) The incubation period is 2 - 26 weeks.D) There is an effective vaccine for hepatitis B, but not for hepatitis C.4. The nurse is aware that nutrition is an important aspect of care for a client with hepatitis. Which of the following diets would be most therapeutic?A) High protein and low carbohydrateB) Low calorie and low proteinC) High carbohydrate and high calorieD) Low carbohydrate and high calorie5. Which of the following nursing orders should be included in the plan of care for a client with hepatitis C?A) The nurse should use universal precautions when obtaining blood samples.B) Total bed rest should be maintained until the client is asymptomatic.C) The client should be instructed to maintain a low semi-Fowler position when eating meals.D) The nurse should administer an alcohol backrub at bedtime. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous bronchial lumina. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale. Cyanosis is not an early sign of hypoxia. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Homosexual males, not heterosexual males, are at high risk for contracting hepatitis. (B) Oncology nurses are employed in high-risk areas and perform invasive procedures that expose them to potential sources of infection. (C) The literature does not support the idea that any ethnic groups are at higher risk. (D)There is no evidence that any religious groups are at higher risk.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hepatitis C and B may result in chronic liver disease. Hepatitis A has a low potential for chronic liver disease. (B) Hepatitis C and B have insidious onsets.Hepatitis A has an abrupt onset. (C) Incubation periods are as follows: hepatitis C is 226 weeks, hepatitis B is 620 weeks, and hepatitis A is 26 weeks. (D)Only hepatitis B has an effective vaccine.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Protein increases the workload of the liver. Increased carbohydrates provide needed calories and promote palatability. (B) Dietary intake should be adequate to ensure wound healing. (C) Increased carbohydrates provide needed calories. (D) A highcalorie diet is best obtained from carbohydrates because of their palatability. Fats increase the workload of the liver.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The source of infection with hepatitis C is contaminated blood products. (B) Modified bed rest should be maintained while the client is symptomatic. Routine activities can be slowly resumed once the client is asymptomatic. (C) Nausea and vomiting occur frequently with hepatitis C. A high Fowler position may decrease the tendency to vomit. (D) The buildup of bilirubin in the clients skin may cause pruritus. Alcohol is a drying agent. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 19
Questions 1. Which of the following should be included in discharge teaching for a client with hepatitis C?A) He should take aspirin as needed for muscle and joint pain.B) He may become a blood donor when his liver enzymes return to normal.C) He should avoid alcoholic beverages during his recovery period.D) He should use disposable dishes for eating and drinking.2. A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with type I diabetes 3 months ago. Two weeks ago he complained of pain, redness, and tenderness in his right lower leg. He is admitted to the hospital with a slight elevation of temperature and vague complaints of 'not feeling well.' At 4:30 PM on the day of his admission, his blood glucose level is 50 mg; dinner will be served at 5:00 PM. The best nursing action would be to:A) Give him 3 tbsp of sugar dissolved in 4 oz of grape juice to drinkB) Ask him to dissolve three pieces of hard candy in his mouthC) Have him drink 4 oz of orange juiceD) Monitor him closely until dinner arrives3. A male client receives 10 U of regular human insulin SC at 9:00 AM. The nurse would expect peak action from this injection to occur at:A) 9:30 AMB) 10:30 AMC) 12 noonD) 4:00 PM4. A type I diabetic client is diagnosed with cellulitis in his right lower extremity. The nurse would expect which of the following to be present in relation to his blood sugar level?A) A normal blood sugar levelB) A decreased blood sugar levelC) An increased blood sugar levelD) Fluctuating levels with a predawn increase5. The physician has ordered that a daily exercise program be instituted by a client with type I diabetes following his discharge from the hospital. Discharge instructions about exercise should include which of the following?A) Exercise should be performed 30 minutes before meals.B) A snack may be needed before and/or during exercise.C) Hyperglycemia may occur 2 - 4 hours after exercise.D) The blood glucose level should be 100 mg or below before exercise is begun. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Aspirin is hepatotoxic, may increase bleeding, and should be avoided. (B) Blood should not be donated by a client who has had hepatitis C because of the possibility of transmission of disease. (C) Alcohol is detoxified in the liver. (D) Hepatitis C is not spread through the oral route.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) The combination of sugar and juice will increase the blood sugar beyond the normal range. (B) Concentrated sweets are not absorbed as fast as juice; consequently, they elevate the blood sugar beyond the normal limit. (C) Four ounces of orange juice will act immediately to raise the blood sugar to a normal level and sustain it for 30 minutes until supper is served. (D) There is an increased potential for the clients blood sugar to decrease even further, resulting in diabetic coma.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This is too early for peak action to occur. (B) This is too early for peak action to occur. (C) Regular insulin peak action occurs 24 hours after administration.(D) This is too late for peak action to occur.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Blood sugar levels increase when the body responds to stress and illness. (B) Blood sugar levels increase when the body responds to stress and illness. (C)Hyperglycemia occurs because glucose is produced as the body responds to the stress and illness of cellulitis. (D) Blood sugar levels remain elevated as long as the body responds to stress and illness.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Exercise should not be performed before meals because the blood sugar is usually lower just prior to eating; therefore, there is an increased risk for hypoglycemia. (B) Exercise lowers blood sugar levels; therefore, a snack may be needed to maintain the appropriate glucose level. (C) Exercise lowers blood sugar levels. (D) Exercise lowers blood sugar levels. If the blood glucose level is 100 mg or below at the start of exercise, the potential for hypoglycemia is greater. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 20
Questions 1. Dietary planning is an essential part of the diabetic clients regimen. The American Diabetes Association recommends which of the following caloric guidelines for daily meal planning?A) 50% complex carbohydrate, 20% - 25% protein, 20% - 25% fatB) 45% complex carbohydrate, 25% - 30% protein, 30% - 35% fatC) 70% complex carbohydrate, 20% - 30% protein, 10% - 20% fatD) 60% complex carbohydrate, 12% - 15% protein, 20% - 25% fat2. A 74-year-old female client is 3 days postoperative. She has an indwelling catheter and has been progressing well. While the nurse is in the room, the client states, 'Oh dear, I feel like I have to urinate again!' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing response?A) Assure her that this is most likely the result of bladder spasms.B) Check the collection bag and tubing to verify that the catheter is draining properly.C) Instruct her to do Kegel exercises to diminish the urge to void.D) Ask her if she has felt this way before.3. In cleansing the perineal area around the site of catheter insertion, the nurse would:A) Wipe the catheter toward the urinary meatusB) Wipe the catheter away from the urinary meatusC) Apply a small amount of talcum powder after drying the perineal areaD) Gently insert the catheter another 1â?2 inch after cleansing to prevent irritation from the balloon4. Nursing interventions designed to decrease the risk of infection in a client with an indwelling catheter include:A) Cleanse area around the meatus twice a dayB) Empty the catheter drainage bag at least dailyC) Change the catheter tubing and bag every 48 hoursD) Maintain fluid intake of 1200 - 1500 mL every day5. A client tells the nurse that she has had a history of urinary tract infections. The nurse would do further health teaching if she verbalizes she will:A) Drink at least 8 oz of cranberry juice dailyB) Maintain a fluid intake of at least 2000 mL dailyC) Wash her hands before and after voidingD) Limit her fluid intake after 6 PM so that there is not a great deal of urine in her bladder while she sleeps Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) The percentage of carbohydrates is too low to maintain blood sugar levels. The percent range of protein is too high and may cause extra workload on the kidney as it is metabolized. (B) The percentage of carbohydrates is too low to maintain blood sugar levels. The percent range of protein is too high and may cause extra workload on the kidney. (C) The percentage of carbohydrates is too high; the percent range of protein is too high, and of fat, too low. (D) This combination provides enough carbohydrates to maintain blood glucose levels, enough protein to maintain body repair, and enough fat to ensure palatability.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Although this may be an appropriate response, the initial response would be to assure the patency of the catheter. (B) The most frequent reason for an urge to void with an indwelling catheter is blocked tubing. This response would be the best initial response. (C) Kegel exercises while a retention catheter is in place would not help to prevent a voiding urge and could irritate the urethral sphincter. (D) Though the nurse would want to ascertain whether the client has felt the same urge to void before, the initial response should be to assure the patency of the catheter.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Wiping toward the urinary meatus would transport microorganisms from the external tubing to the urethra, thereby increasing the risk of bladder infection. (B)Wiping away from the urinary meatus would remove microorganisms from the point of insertion of the catheter, thereby decreasing the risk of bladder infection. (C)Talcum powder should not be applied following catheter care, because powders contribute to moisture retention and infection likelihood. (D) The catheter should never be inserted further into the urethra, because this would serve no useful purpose and would increase the risk of infection.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Catheter site care is to be done at least twice daily to prevent pathogen growth at the catheter insertion site. (B) Catheter drainage bags are usually emptied every 8 hours to prevent urine stasis and pathogen growth. (C) Tubing and collection bags are not changed this often, because research studies have not demonstrated the efficacy of this practice. (D) Fluid intake needs to be in the 20002500 mL range if possible to help irrigate the bladder and prevent infection.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Cranberry juice helps to maintain urine acidity, thereby retarding bacterial growth. (B) A generous fluid intake will help to irrigate the bladder and to prevent bacterial growth within the bladder. (C) Hand washing is an effective means of preventing pathogen transmission. (D) Restricting fluid intake would contribute to urinary stasis, which in turn would contribute to bacterial growth. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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